ATI RN
Fundamentals Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following parts of neuron transmits impulses away from the cell body?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Axon. The axon is the part of the neuron that transmits impulses away from the cell body towards other neurons, muscles, or glands. Its structure allows for the rapid transmission of electrical signals. Rationale: 1. Dendrites receive signals and transmit them towards the cell body, so A is incorrect. 2. Neurolemma is the outermost layer of a Schwann cell, not a part of the neuron responsible for transmitting impulses, so B is incorrect. 3. The synapse is the junction between two neurons where communication occurs, not a part of the neuron transmitting impulses, so D is incorrect.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client who’s hypoglycemic. This client will have a blood glucose level:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Below 70mg/dl. Hypoglycemia is defined as a blood glucose level below 70mg/dl. Symptoms of hypoglycemia include confusion, shakiness, and sweating. Treating hypoglycemia involves administering fast-acting carbohydrates. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they describe blood glucose levels that are within the normal or hyperglycemic range, which are not indicative of hypoglycemia. It is essential for the nurse to recognize and promptly address hypoglycemia to prevent serious complications.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the ff would describe the discomfort experienced by a client with a tension headache?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because tension headaches typically present as a feeling of pressure or steady constriction on both sides of the head. This is due to muscle tension in the head and neck. Choice A is incorrect as sensitivity to light is more characteristic of migraines. Choice C is incorrect as unilateral paralysis is not typically associated with tension headaches. Choice D is incorrect as vague headache especially peri orbital is not a common symptom of tension headaches. Therefore, the best description of discomfort experienced by a client with a tension headache is the pressure or steady constriction on both sides of the head.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is reviewing a patient’s plan of care, which includes the nursing diagnostic statement, Impaired physical mobility related to tibial fracture as evidenced by patient’s inability to ambulate. Which part of the diagnostic statement does the nurse need to revise?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Collaborative problem. The nurse needs to revise the collaborative problem part of the diagnostic statement because "Impaired physical mobility related to tibial fracture as evidenced by patient’s inability to ambulate" is a nursing diagnosis, not a collaborative problem. Collaborative problems involve issues that require both nursing and medical interventions, whereas nursing diagnoses focus on the nurse's role in addressing the patient's health issues. Therefore, the nurse should revise the collaborative problem part to accurately reflect the collaborative aspect of the patient's care. Etiology (A), nursing diagnosis (B), and defining characteristic (D) are not the parts of the diagnostic statement that need revision in this scenario.
Question 5 of 9
Before administering a food feeding the nurse knows to perform which of the following assessments/
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because assessing the GI tract helps determine the client's readiness for feeding. Bowel sounds indicate gut motility, last BM assesses bowel function, and distention indicates possible issues. Option B is incorrect as it pertains more to neurological assessment. Option C is not a priority assessment before feeding. Option D is incorrect as formula should be warmed to room temperature before feeding to prevent GI upset.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is reviewing a patient’s plan of care, which includes the nursing diagnostic statement, Impaired physical mobility related to tibial fracture as evidenced by patient’s inability to ambulate. Which part of the diagnostic statement does the nurse need to revise?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Collaborative problem. The nurse needs to revise this part of the diagnostic statement because impaired physical mobility related to tibial fracture is a nursing diagnosis, not a collaborative problem. Collaborative problems are issues that require both medical and nursing interventions, whereas nursing diagnoses are within the scope of nursing practice. The etiology identifies the cause of the problem (tibial fracture), the nursing diagnosis states the problem (impaired physical mobility), and the defining characteristic is the evidence that supports the diagnosis (inability to ambulate). Therefore, the nurse should revise the part stating collaborative problem as it does not align with the nature of the issue presented in the scenario.
Question 7 of 9
Arthur, a 66-year old client for pneumonia has a temperature ranging from 39° to 40° C with periods of diaphoresis. Which of the following interventions by Nurse Carlos would be a priority?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen therapy. This is the priority intervention because a high temperature and diaphoresis indicate potential respiratory distress. Oxygen therapy can help improve oxygenation and support respiratory function. Providing frequent linen changes (B) is important for hygiene but not the priority. Fluid intake (C) is essential but not as urgent as addressing respiratory distress. Maintaining complete bed rest (D) may be necessary but addressing oxygenation takes precedence in this case.
Question 8 of 9
A pregnant client requires immediate but temporary protection from chickenpox. Which type of immunization would be required?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Passive immunization. This involves administering pre-formed antibodies to provide immediate protection. In the case of a pregnant client needing temporary protection from chickenpox, passive immunization is necessary as it offers immediate immunity without stimulating the client's immune system. - A (Naturally acquired active immunization): This involves exposure to the pathogen and the body producing its antibodies, which takes time and is not suitable for immediate protection. - B (Artificially acquired passive immunization): This option doesn't involve providing pre-formed antibodies, which are needed for immediate protection. - C (Artificially acquired active immunization): This method requires time for the body to develop its immunity, not providing immediate protection as needed in this scenario.
Question 9 of 9
How many drops per minute should be delivered?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 17 drops per minute. To calculate the correct drip rate, you need to use the formula: (Volume to be infused in mL / Time in minutes) x Drop factor. In this case, if the volume to be infused is 100 mL and the time is 60 minutes with a drop factor of 20, the calculation would be: (100 / 60) x 20 = 33.33 drops per minute. Since we cannot deliver fractional drops, the closest whole number is 17 drops per minute. This ensures the correct delivery rate for the medication. Choice A (6 drops per minute) is incorrect as it would be too slow and may not deliver the medication effectively. Choice C (50 drops per minute) and Choice D (100 drops per minute) are incorrect as they would both deliver the medication too quickly, potentially causing harm to the patient. The correct answer, 17 drops per minute, ensures a safe and accurate delivery rate