Which of the following pairs of drugs were most likely administered to the patient with aortic dissection?

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Cardiovascular Pharmacology Drug Class Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which of the following pairs of drugs were most likely administered to the patient with aortic dissection?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D (Nitroprusside and esmolol) for aortic dissection. Nitroprusside is a vasodilator to reduce afterload and esmolol is a beta-blocker to control heart rate and blood pressure. This combination helps decrease shear stress on the aorta. A: Labetalol is a beta-blocker and prazosin is an alpha-blocker, not commonly used for aortic dissection. B: Diazoxide is a vasodilator and hydralazine is an arterial dilator, not the first-line in aortic dissection. C: Clonidine is a centrally acting alpha-agonist and captopril is an ACE inhibitor, not typically used in aortic dissection management.

Question 2 of 5

Which of the following drugs is believed to improve microcirculation in peripheral vascular diseases by promoting RBC flexibility?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer to the question is C) Pentoxiphylline. Pentoxiphylline is a xanthine derivative that is believed to improve microcirculation in peripheral vascular diseases by promoting red blood cell (RBC) flexibility. This increased flexibility helps RBCs to navigate through narrowed blood vessels more efficiently, improving blood flow to tissues in conditions such as intermittent claudication. Option A) Cyclandelate is a vasodilator that works by relaxing smooth muscles in blood vessels, but it does not specifically target RBC flexibility to improve microcirculation. Option B) Theophylline is a bronchodilator commonly used in respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. It does not have a direct effect on RBC flexibility or microcirculation in peripheral vascular diseases. Option D) Nicotinic acid, also known as niacin, is used to lower cholesterol and triglyceride levels. While it has some vasodilatory effects, it does not primarily target RBC flexibility to improve microcirculation in peripheral vascular diseases. Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drug classes in cardiovascular pharmacology is crucial for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions when managing patients with various cardiovascular conditions. Knowing how specific drugs affect microcirculation can help healthcare providers tailor treatment plans to optimize patient outcomes.

Question 3 of 5

Choose the drug which has a direct effect on platelet membrane to inhibit aggregation, release reaction and to improve platelet survival in extra-corporeal circulation

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) Ticlopidine. Ticlopidine is a thienopyridine antiplatelet agent that has a direct effect on the platelet membrane to inhibit aggregation, release reaction, and improve platelet survival in extra-corporeal circulation. Ticlopidine works by inhibiting the binding of adenosine diphosphate (ADP) to its platelet receptor, thereby preventing platelet activation and aggregation. This mechanism of action is distinct from the other options provided. A) Dipyridamole works by inhibiting platelet aggregation through a different mechanism involving adenosine uptake inhibition and phosphodiesterase inhibition. C) Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation by irreversibly inhibiting cyclooxygenase, thereby preventing the formation of thromboxane A2, a potent platelet aggregator. D) Sulfinpyrazone is a uricosuric agent that also has antiplatelet effects but works through a different mechanism compared to Ticlopidine. In an educational context, understanding the mechanisms of action of different cardiovascular pharmacology drug classes is essential for healthcare professionals to make informed clinical decisions when managing patients with cardiovascular conditions. Knowing the specific effects of each drug on platelet function helps in tailoring treatment regimens to achieve optimal outcomes while minimizing adverse effects.

Question 4 of 5

The client has a decreased cardiac output. Which things can increase the client's cardiac output?select one that does not apply

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the context of a client with decreased cardiac output, it is crucial to understand the factors that can influence cardiac output. The correct answer, option A, "Decreased heart rate," is the one that does not apply to increasing cardiac output in this scenario. When a client has decreased cardiac output, increasing the heart rate would typically be beneficial in enhancing cardiac output by increasing the volume of blood pumped out by the heart per minute. The other options, B) Increased heart rate, C) Increased blood volume, and D) Increased venous return to the heart, are all factors that can potentially increase cardiac output in a client with decreased cardiac output. Increased heart rate (option B) can help improve cardiac output by allowing the heart to pump more frequently, thereby increasing the amount of blood pumped out per minute. Increased blood volume (option C) can also positively impact cardiac output by providing more blood for the heart to pump, thereby increasing the stroke volume and cardiac output. Increased venous return to the heart (option D) is essential for enhancing cardiac output as it ensures that the heart receives an adequate volume of blood to pump out effectively. By increasing venous return, preload increases, leading to a more forceful contraction and subsequently higher cardiac output. In an educational context, understanding the factors that influence cardiac output is vital for healthcare professionals, especially those working in cardiovascular care. By grasping these concepts, healthcare providers can make informed clinical decisions to optimize cardiac function and improve patient outcomes.

Question 5 of 5

The client has paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia. What are some causes of this?select one that does not apply

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) is a condition characterized by sudden episodes of rapid heart rate originating above the ventricles. In this case, the correct answer is D) Hypertension. Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is not a common cause of PSVT. Instead, PSVT is often triggered by factors like stress (option A), digitalis toxicity (option B), and stimulants (option C) such as caffeine or certain medications. Educational Context: Understanding the causes of PSVT is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially those in cardiovascular pharmacology. By knowing the triggers for PSVT, healthcare providers can better manage and treat patients with this condition. Identifying and addressing underlying causes like stress, medications, or stimulants can help in preventing future episodes of PSVT and improving patient outcomes. In this scenario, it is important to differentiate between common triggers like stress, digitalis toxicity, and stimulants, and less likely causes such as hypertension. This distinction allows healthcare providers to focus on appropriate interventions and provide optimal care for patients with PSVT.

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