Which of the following pairs of drugs can fully activate the same receptors?

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Principles of Pharmacology Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which of the following pairs of drugs can fully activate the same receptors?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is option A) Drugs P and Q. The rationale behind this is that drugs P and Q can fully activate the same receptors. This means that both drugs bind to the receptors and produce a maximal response. This is a key concept in pharmacology where drugs that fully activate the same receptors are considered to have similar pharmacological effects. Now, let's analyze why the other options are incorrect: - Option B) Drugs P and R: These drugs do not fully activate the same receptors, so they would not be the correct pair. - Option C) Drugs P and S: Similarly, these drugs do not fully activate the same receptors, making this option incorrect. - Option D) Drugs Q and T: These drugs also do not fully activate the same receptors, so they are not the correct pair. From an educational standpoint, understanding drug-receptor interactions is fundamental in pharmacology. Knowing which drugs can fully activate the same receptors is crucial in predicting their effects and potential interactions. This question tests students' knowledge of receptor activation and its implications in drug actions, highlighting the importance of specificity in pharmacological responses.

Question 2 of 5

What percentage of atenolol would be bound if a dose of 50 mg/d was administered to the patient?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B (5%) because the question is asking for the bound percentage of atenolol after a specific dose has been administered. Since the dose is 50 mg/d, the correct answer can be calculated as 50 mg/d / 1000 mg/g x 0.10 (10%) = 5%. This calculation shows that 5% of the atenolol would be bound.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following was the most likely cause of the patient's disorder?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this Pharmacology Quizlet question, the correct answer is C) Genetic polymorphism of CYP2C9. This is because genetic variations in the CYP2C9 gene can affect the metabolism of warfarin, a commonly used anticoagulant. Option A, increased protein binding of warfarin, is unlikely to be the cause of the patient's disorder as warfarin's protein binding typically remains relatively constant. Option B, decreased renal excretion of warfarin, is not the primary mechanism of warfarin metabolism, so it is less likely to be the main cause of the disorder. Option D, decreased metabolism of CYP2C9, is also incorrect because it is the genetic polymorphism of CYP2C9, rather than a decrease in metabolism, that leads to altered warfarin clearance in individuals. Educationally, understanding how genetic variations can impact drug metabolism is crucial in pharmacology as it helps healthcare professionals personalize drug therapy to optimize outcomes and minimize adverse effects for individual patients. It underscores the importance of pharmacogenomics in clinical practice and highlights the need for tailored treatment approaches based on genetic factors.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the following terms best defines this drug interaction?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In pharmacology, understanding drug interactions is crucial for safe and effective patient care. The correct answer to this question is C) Synergism. Synergism occurs when the combined effect of two or more drugs is greater than the sum of their individual effects. This means that when drugs are used together, they produce a more powerful outcome than if each drug was used alone. In the context of pharmacology, this can lead to enhanced therapeutic benefits but also an increased risk of adverse effects. Option A) Additive effect refers to when the combined effect of two drugs is simply the sum of their individual effects. This does not fully capture the concept of a synergistic interaction where the combined effect is greater than expected. Option B) Potentiation involves one drug enhancing the effects of another, but it does not necessarily imply a synergistic interaction where the combined effect is significantly greater than the sum of individual effects. Option D) Reverse tolerance is a phenomenon where an individual experiences an increased response to a drug after repeated doses, which is not directly related to the concept of drug interaction. Educationally, this question challenges students to not only recall definitions but also to apply their understanding of drug interactions. Understanding the nuances between different types of drug interactions is essential for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions when managing patient medications and ensuring positive outcomes.

Question 5 of 5

What is the immediate consequence of the activation of beta receptors in the 9-year-old boy with mild asthma?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In a 9-year-old boy with mild asthma, the immediate consequence of the activation of beta receptors is increased synthesis of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP). This is because beta receptors are G protein-coupled receptors that, upon activation, lead to the activation of adenylyl cyclase, which in turn catalyzes the conversion of ATP to cAMP. Option A, opening of ligand-gated K+ channels, is incorrect as it is associated with the activation of certain types of ion channels like potassium channels, not beta receptors. Option C, decreased synthesis of cAMP, is also incorrect as the activation of beta receptors leads to an increase, not a decrease, in cAMP levels. Option D, conformational change of a G protein, is incorrect because while G proteins play a role in the signaling cascade initiated by beta receptor activation, the immediate consequence in this context is the synthesis of cAMP. Understanding the specific signaling pathways activated by beta receptors is crucial in pharmacology, especially when considering their role in conditions like asthma where medications target these receptors to improve airway function.

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