ATI RN
Cardiovascular Test Bank Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following pacemakers is usually used in an emergency and attached by the critical care nurse to the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Transcutaneous pacer. In an emergency, a transcutaneous pacer is used as it can be quickly attached by the critical care nurse externally to provide temporary pacing. Other options are not typically used in emergencies: B) Epicardial pacer requires surgical placement, C) Transvenous pacer is inserted via a vein and takes longer to set up, and D) Permanent pacer is surgically implanted for long-term pacing needs. Therefore, A is the most suitable choice for immediate intervention in critical situations.
Question 2 of 5
The client is receiving a beta agonist. What adverse effect should the nurse look out for?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperglycemia. Beta agonists can stimulate the release of glucose from the liver, leading to increased blood sugar levels. The nurse should monitor for signs of hyperglycemia such as increased thirst, frequent urination, and fatigue. Incorrect answers: A: Hypoglycemia is not a common adverse effect of beta agonists as they typically raise blood sugar levels. C: Muscle weakness is not directly associated with beta agonist use. D: Paresthesias (tingling or numbness) are not typically linked to beta agonist administration.
Question 3 of 5
The client is on a Class II anti-arrhythmic agent. What is one of these drugs?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sodium channel blocker. Class II anti-arrhythmic agents primarily target beta blockers. These drugs work by blocking sodium channels, which helps in controlling irregular heart rhythms. Calcium channel blockers (choice A) and ACE inhibitors (choice D) do not belong to Class II anti-arrhythmic agents. Beta blockers (choice B) are Class II anti-arrhythmic agents, but the question asks for the specific drug class within Class II, which is sodium channel blockers.
Question 4 of 5
The client has hypertension and is being treated with an ACE inhibitor. What vital signs would trigger the release of renin from the kidneys?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (BP of 145/95). When the blood pressure is elevated, the kidneys sense a decrease in perfusion pressure and trigger the release of renin to increase blood pressure. A low blood pressure of 70/40 (choice A) would not stimulate renin release as it is too low. The pulse rate (choices C & D) does not directly trigger the release of renin.
Question 5 of 5
The client is toxic on heparin. What can the nurse do to counteract this?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Give Protamine. Protamine is the specific antidote for heparin overdose as it binds to heparin molecules, neutralizing its anticoagulant effects. Vitamin K (A) is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Warfarin (C) is another anticoagulant and should not be given to counteract heparin toxicity. Platelets (D) are used to treat bleeding caused by low platelet count, not heparin toxicity. Therefore, giving Protamine is the appropriate intervention in this scenario.