Which of the following outcomes would indicate successful treatment of diabetes insipidus?

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Question 1 of 5

Which of the following outcomes would indicate successful treatment of diabetes insipidus?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because successful treatment of diabetes insipidus aims to reduce excessive urine output and dehydration. A fluid intake of less than 2,500mL in 24 hours indicates proper control of fluid balance. Choice B is incorrect because urine output of more than 200mL/hour suggests ongoing excessive fluid loss, which is not indicative of successful treatment. Choice C is incorrect as a blood pressure of 90/50mmHg is low and may indicate hypotension, which is not a specific indicator of successful diabetes insipidus treatment. Choice D is incorrect because a pulse rate of 126 beats/min is not a direct marker of diabetes insipidus treatment success. In summary, the correct indicator of successful treatment of diabetes insipidus is a reduction in fluid intake, option A, as it signifies improved fluid balance and hydration status.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse caring for an adult client. The nurse will need to monitor for which of the following metabolic complications?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, hyperglycemia and hypokalemia. Hyperglycemia can occur in adult clients due to various factors such as diabetes or stress. Hypokalemia can be a consequence of hyperglycemia or other conditions leading to potassium loss. Monitoring for these metabolic complications is essential to ensure the client's well-being. Other choices are incorrect because hypoglycemia and hypercalcemia (choice A) are less likely to occur concurrently in adult clients. Hyperglycemia and hyperkalemia (choice B) are less common as hyperkalemia is usually associated with renal dysfunction. Hyperkalemia and hypercalcemia (choice D) are less likely to be monitored together as they are not commonly seen in the same clinical context.

Question 3 of 5

A 70-year old male diagnosed with BPH (benign prostatic hyperplasia) asks the nurse about his disease. The best response would be:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Hormonal imbalances are the primary cause of BPH in aging males. As men age, testosterone levels decrease and estrogen levels may increase relative to testosterone, leading to prostate gland growth. This is why hormonal imbalances are more likely the cause of BPH in older males. Explanation of other choices: A: Chronic infection of the urinary tract does not directly cause BPH, although it can lead to similar symptoms such as urinary frequency and urgency. B: Chronic cigarette smoking is not a direct cause of BPH, although it can contribute to overall prostate health and exacerbate symptoms. D: Chronic obstruction of the bladder due to stone is a separate condition from BPH, although it can cause similar urinary symptoms.

Question 4 of 5

Nurse Carlos teaches a community adult class about the common symptoms of tuberculosis. Which of the following should Nurse Carlos include?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: weight loss. Weight loss is a common symptom of tuberculosis due to the impact of the infection on the body's metabolism and appetite. This symptom is important to recognize as it can be an early indicator of the disease. Dyspnea on exertion (B) is not a common symptom of tuberculosis, as it typically affects the lungs rather than causing difficulty breathing. Increased appetite (C) is not a typical symptom, as TB usually leads to decreased appetite and weight loss. Mental status changes (D) are not directly associated with tuberculosis and are more commonly seen in other conditions affecting the brain. Therefore, weight loss is the most relevant symptom to include in the teaching material for identifying possible cases of tuberculosis.

Question 5 of 5

A 25-year old with hepatitis may be anicteric and symptomless. In the early part of the hepatic inflammatory disorder, the most likely symptom/sign is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: anorexia. In the early stage of hepatic inflammatory disorder, anorexia is the most likely symptom/sign. This is because hepatic inflammation can lead to a decrease in appetite, resulting in anorexia. Dark urine (A) is commonly associated with liver dysfunction but typically occurs later in the disease process. Occult blood in stools (B) is more indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding rather than early hepatic inflammation. Ascites (C) is the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity and is a later manifestation of liver disease. Therefore, anorexia is the most likely symptom in the early stages of hepatic inflammatory disorder.

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