ATI RN
Pediatric Respiratory Distress Nursing Interventions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following organisms is responsible for the development of rheumatic fever?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In pediatric respiratory distress cases, understanding the etiology of conditions like rheumatic fever is crucial for effective nursing interventions. The correct answer is C) Group A beta-haemolytic streptococcus. This bacterium, specifically the Streptococcus pyogenes strain, is responsible for causing rheumatic fever through an autoimmune response triggered by untreated or inadequately treated streptococcal infections. Option A) Streptococcal pneumonia is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, a different bacterium than Group A streptococcus, and is associated with pneumonia and other respiratory infections, not rheumatic fever. Option B) Haemophilus influenza is a bacterium that can cause respiratory infections like pneumonia and bronchitis but is not linked to rheumatic fever. Option D) Staphylococcus aureus is a common cause of skin and soft tissue infections, as well as some respiratory infections, but it is not implicated in the development of rheumatic fever. Educationally, understanding the specific pathogens associated with different diseases is essential for nurses to provide accurate assessments, interventions, and patient education. In the case of rheumatic fever, recognizing the role of Group A streptococcus can help in early identification and treatment, potentially preventing serious complications.
Question 2 of 5
After birth, the newborn has to adapt to the new environment alongside with the changes in his physiological functioning. Certain cues are needed to identify that the newborn is well or problems are already present. Samantha, a graduating student nurse assists the doctor to a G1P0 woman giving birth in the lying-in clinic. Samantha knows that the newborn is in critical condition if:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Cyanosis in a newborn indicates a lack of oxygen, which is a critical condition requiring immediate medical attention. Caput succedaneum (swelling of the scalp) and absence of foot creases are not immediate signs of critical condition, and while not crying can be concerning, cyanosis is a more definitive sign of distress.
Question 3 of 5
During 9 months, the infant learns how to communicate actively as evident by saying few words with meaning. Louise is now 9 months old. Her parents are really happy because she can now communicate to them. In what way do you expect how Louise communicates?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) She can say a few words like "mama" and "dada." At 9 months, infants typically start to say simple words with meaning, such as "mama" and "dada," as part of their language development milestones. This ability to communicate verbally is a significant indicator of normal language acquisition in infants at this age. Option A) There is a reciprocal smiling with parents, while important for bonding and social interaction, does not directly address the infant's communication development through language. Option B) She is now babbling is common in earlier stages of infant language development, typically around 6 months of age. By 9 months, infants should progress beyond just babbling to forming recognizable words. Option C) She squeals in excitement is a form of non-verbal communication that infants engage in to express emotions but does not specifically address the development of language and communication skills. Educationally, understanding typical developmental milestones in infants is crucial for healthcare providers, especially in pediatric nursing, as it helps in assessing and monitoring a child's growth and development. Recognizing when a child should be reaching certain milestones, such as saying a few words at 9 months, can aid in early identification of potential delays or issues that may require further evaluation or intervention. This knowledge enables nurses to provide appropriate support and guidance to parents and caregivers to promote optimal development in children.
Question 4 of 5
SITUATION: Mr. & Mrs. Cua's first child, Homer, was born with a unilateral cleft lip & cleft palate. The lip defect extended through the floor of the nostril & communicated with the defect in the anterior palate. For which reason would it be advisable for Homer's cleft lip to be repaired as soon as possible after birth?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is A) To facilitate feeding & Improve nutrition. Repairing Homer's cleft lip as soon as possible after birth is crucial to help him effectively feed and ensure proper nutrition. A cleft lip and palate can impede a baby's ability to create a proper seal during feeding, leading to difficulties in sucking and swallowing. By repairing the cleft lip early, Homer will have improved feeding efficiency, reducing the risk of malnutrition and promoting healthy growth and development. Option B) To eliminate the danger of aspiration of secretions is incorrect as repairing the cleft lip primarily focuses on addressing feeding challenges, while aspiration risks are more related to the cleft palate, which may be repaired separately. Option C) To increase his parent's acceptance of his defect is not a primary reason for early cleft lip repair. While parental acceptance is important, the main goal of early intervention is to ensure the child's physiological needs are met to support optimal growth and development. Option D) To prevent speech impairment & voice problems is not directly related to cleft lip repair but is more associated with cleft palate repair, which may be addressed at a later stage. Educationally, this scenario highlights the importance of early intervention in pediatric care, emphasizing the impact of timely surgical procedures on a child's overall well-being. Understanding the specific reasons for early cleft lip repair helps healthcare professionals provide comprehensive and effective care to infants with craniofacial anomalies.
Question 5 of 5
Kurt Sy was a full term baby delivered without complication who was found to have a heart murmur during a early well baby check up. The doctor told Mrs Sy that the murmur indicates a possible cardiac defect, and Kurt was referred to the pediatric clinic for follow up and complete cardiac work up. Between his 2nd and 4th year of age, Kurt experienced 2 episodes of cyanosis, easy fatigability, dyspnea on exertion and clubbing of fingers. Which of the following maternal factors has been implicated as a possible cause of CHD's?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) Rubella during the first trimester of pregnancy. Rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy is known to be a significant risk factor for Congenital Heart Defects (CHD) in the baby. Rubella can interfere with the normal development of the baby's heart, leading to structural abnormalities. This can result in conditions such as atrial septal defects, ventricular septal defects, and patent ductus arteriosus, which can present with symptoms like cyanosis, dyspnea, and clubbing of fingers in the affected child. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly implicated as causes of CHD. Excessive and rapid weight gain during pregnancy, hypertension associated with pre-eclampsia, and metabolic acidosis due to diabetes mellitus can have other negative impacts on pregnancy outcomes and fetal health, but they are not specifically known to cause CHD. Educationally, understanding the maternal factors that can contribute to CHD is crucial for nurses caring for pediatric patients with cardiac conditions. It highlights the importance of prenatal care, vaccination history, and overall maternal health in preventing congenital heart defects and promoting optimal outcomes for babies. This knowledge can guide nurses in providing appropriate education and support to expectant mothers to reduce the risk of CHD in their babies.