ATI RN
microbiology an introduction tortora test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following organisms is a common cause of peptic ulcers?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Helicobacter pylori. This bacterium is a well-known cause of peptic ulcers due to its ability to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach and produce enzymes that weaken the protective mucous layer of the stomach lining. Treponema pallidum (choice A) causes syphilis, Vibrio cholerae (choice B) causes cholera, and Escherichia coli (choice D) can cause various infections but is not a common cause of peptic ulcers. Therefore, Helicobacter pylori is the correct answer as it is specifically associated with peptic ulcer formation.
Question 2 of 9
Adenoviral infections are restricted only to the upper respiratory tract:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. Adenoviral infections are not restricted only to the upper respiratory tract; they can also affect the gastrointestinal tract, eyes, and other organs. Adenoviruses are known to cause a wide range of illnesses beyond just respiratory infections. Therefore, option B is correct. Option A is incorrect because it states that adenoviral infections are restricted to the upper respiratory tract, which is not true. Option C is incorrect because there is no circumstance where adenoviral infections are solely limited to the upper respiratory tract. Option D is also incorrect as the correct answer is B.
Question 3 of 9
The most common cause of cystitis (after Escherichia coli) in healthy sexually active women is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus saprophyticus. This bacterium is the second most common cause of cystitis in healthy sexually active women after E. coli. Staphylococcus saprophyticus is commonly found in the gastrointestinal and genital areas. It has a unique ability to adhere to uroepithelial cells, making it a common pathogen in urinary tract infections. Proteus mirabilis is more commonly associated with complicated UTIs, especially in catheterized patients. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is more commonly seen in hospitalized or immunocompromised patients. Klebsiella pneumoniae is typically associated with UTIs in elderly patients or those with structural abnormalities in the urinary tract.
Question 4 of 9
A wound infection culture revealed Gram-positive cocci in clusters. The bacteria were catalase-positive and coagulase-negative. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most likely causative agent in this case is Staphylococcus epidermidis. This conclusion can be drawn based on the characteristics provided: Gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase-positive, and coagulase-negative. Staphylococcus epidermidis fits all these criteria. Explanation of other choices: - Staphylococcus aureus: Typically coagulase-positive, so it does not match the characteristics given. - Streptococcus pyogenes: Gram-positive cocci in chains, not clusters. Also, it is catalase-negative. - Enterococcus faecalis: Gram-positive cocci in pairs or chains, not clusters. Additionally, it is catalase-negative. Therefore, Staphylococcus epidermidis is the most likely causative agent based on the provided characteristics.
Question 5 of 9
Clinical symptom, typical for erythema infectiosum is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Exanthematous rash. Erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease, is characterized by a distinctive rash on the cheeks that looks like a "slapped cheek." This rash then spreads to the rest of the body, resulting in a lace-like rash (exanthem). Swelling of salivary glands (choice A) is not a typical symptom of erythema infectiosum. Diarrhea (choice B) and hepatitis (choice C) are also not associated with this condition. Therefore, the most characteristic clinical symptom of erythema infectiosum is the exanthematous rash.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following pathogenic mechanisms are not typical for autoimmune reactions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Formation of CD4+ cells. In autoimmune reactions, CD4+ cells are actually involved in the immune response. Here's the rationale: 1. CD4+ cells are helper T cells that play a crucial role in activating other immune cells in autoimmune reactions. 2. Decreased functional activity of T-suppressors (Choice A) is typical in autoimmune reactions as it leads to unchecked immune responses. 3. Loss of tolerance for T-helpers and B-lymphocytes (Choice B) is common in autoimmune reactions, where the immune system mistakenly attacks self-cells. 4. Ag released by normally isolated tissues (Choice C) is a typical mechanism in autoimmune reactions where self-antigens trigger immune responses.
Question 7 of 9
What preparations are used for prevention of fungal infection?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because Fluconazole, Orungal, and Nizoral are antifungal medications commonly used for prevention of fungal infections. Fluconazole is a systemic antifungal agent, Orungal (Itraconazole) is used for various fungal infections, and Nizoral (Ketoconazole) is effective against a wide range of fungal infections. Choices B, C, and D do not contain antifungal medications and are unrelated to preventing fungal infections.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following bacteria is associated with the disease tuberculosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a bacterium known to cause tuberculosis. Step 2: Mycobacterium leprae causes leprosy, not tuberculosis. Step 3: Streptococcus pneumoniae causes pneumonia, not tuberculosis. Step 4: Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes gonorrhea, not tuberculosis. Conclusion: Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the correct answer as it is the only bacterium associated with tuberculosis among the choices provided.
Question 9 of 9
Planned mass vaccination of all newborn 5-7 day old children against tuberulosis plays an important role in tuberculosis prevention. In this case the following vaccine is applied:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: BCG (Bacille Calmette-Guerin). BCG is the vaccine used for tuberculosis prevention, not only for newborns but also for older children and adults. BCG helps in protecting against severe forms of tuberculosis in infants. Diphteria and tetanus toxoids and pertussis vaccine (choice B) is for protection against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis, not tuberculosis. Diphtheria and tetanus anatoxin vaccine (choice C) provides protection against diphtheria and tetanus, not tuberculosis. Adsorbed diphtheria vaccine (choice D) is specifically for diphtheria, not tuberculosis. Therefore, the correct choice is A as it is the only vaccine related to tuberculosis prevention.