ATI RN
Basic Principles of Patient Care Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following operational modes used in EMS communication can transmit voice as well as telemetry simultaneously?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Multiplex mode. In multiplex mode, voice and telemetry signals are combined and transmitted simultaneously on a single communication channel. This mode allows for efficient use of bandwidth by transmitting multiple types of data concurrently. Trunk system mode (A) involves multiple channels for different users, not for voice and telemetry together. Duplex mode (C) allows for two-way communication but not necessarily simultaneous voice and telemetry. Simplex mode (D) only allows communication in one direction at a time, not suitable for transmitting voice and telemetry simultaneously.
Question 2 of 5
You are evaluating a trauma patient who may have sustained a spinal cord injury. Which of the following would you expect to see in a trauma patient with a spinal cord injury with autonomic nervous system involvement?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because autonomic nervous system involvement in a spinal cord injury often results in bradycardia, hypotension, and a loss of sweating or shivering ability. This is due to disruption of sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways. Choice B is incorrect because hypertension and warm, dry skin are not typical signs of autonomic involvement in spinal cord injury. Choice C is incorrect because tachycardia and hypertension are more commonly seen with sympathetic overactivity, not autonomic involvement in spinal cord injury. Choice D is incorrect because tachycardia, hypotension, diaphoresis, and cool, clammy skin are more indicative of shock rather than specific autonomic involvement in spinal cord injury.
Question 3 of 5
Several minutes after sealing your adult trauma patient's sucking chest wound with an occlusive dressing secured on three sides, he begins to experience increasing shortness of breath, jugular vein distension, decreasing unilateral breath sounds on the affected side, and his blood pressure is less than 90 systolic and falling. Repeated attempts to relieve the pressure at the occlusive dressing have proven ineffective. At this point, which of the following should be initiated?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Immediate needle decompression using a 10- or 14-gauge catheter that is at least 2 or 2.5 inches long. Rationale: 1. Needle decompression is the standard treatment for tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening condition causing respiratory distress. 2. The patient's symptoms (shortness of breath, jugular vein distension, decreased breath sounds, falling blood pressure) are indicative of tension pneumothorax. 3. Repeated attempts to relieve pressure at the occlusive dressing have failed, suggesting a need for more definitive intervention. 4. A longer catheter (2-2.5 inches) is recommended to ensure proper decompression. Summary: A: Removing the occlusive dressing and pulling the wound open could worsen the tension pneumothorax by allowing more air into the chest. B: Translaryngeal Jet Ventilation is not indicated for tension pneumothorax and may delay appropriate treatment
Question 4 of 5
A 30-year-old man sustains a severely comminuted, open, distal right femur fracture. Immediate efforts should involve:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct immediate effort for a severely comminuted, open, distal right femur fracture in a 30-year-old man is to tamponade the wound with a pressure dressing (Choice B). This helps control bleeding and prevent further contamination. Immediate angiography (Choice A) is not necessary as controlling bleeding and stabilizing the patient is the priority. Wound exploration and removal of bony fragments (Choice C) should be done after initial stabilization to prevent further damage. Realignment of the fracture segments with a traction splint (Choice D) should also be done after initial wound management to avoid exacerbating the injury.
Question 5 of 5
In managing the head-injury patient which is the most initial step:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct initial step in managing a head-injury patient is to secure the airway. This is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation, which are essential for the patient's survival. Without a patent airway, the patient may suffer from hypoxia and respiratory distress. Obtaining a c-spine film or controlling scalp hemorrhage can be important but are secondary to securing the airway. Supporting the circulation is also vital, but airway management takes precedence as it directly impacts oxygen delivery to the brain. Therefore, securing the airway should be the primary focus in managing a head-injury patient.