ATI RN
Basic Principles of Patient Care Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following operational modes used in EMS communication can transmit voice as well as telemetry simultaneously?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Multiplex mode. In multiplex mode, multiple signals are combined into a single signal for transmission, allowing voice and telemetry data to be sent simultaneously. This is achieved through time-division multiplexing or frequency-division multiplexing. Trunk system mode (A) involves sharing a pool of communication channels among multiple users, but does not specifically enable voice and telemetry transmission simultaneously. Duplex mode (C) allows for two-way communication but may not necessarily support both voice and telemetry simultaneously. Simplex mode (D) only allows communication in one direction, making it unsuitable for transmitting voice and telemetry simultaneously.
Question 2 of 5
You are evaluating a trauma patient who may have sustained a spinal cord injury. Which of the following would you expect to see in a trauma patient with a spinal cord injury with autonomic nervous system involvement?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. In spinal cord injury with autonomic nervous system involvement, there is disruption of sympathetic and parasympathetic control. This leads to bradycardia due to loss of sympathetic tone, hypotension due to disrupted baroreceptor reflexes, and loss of sweating or shivering ability due to impaired temperature regulation. Choice B is incorrect because hypertension and warm, dry skin are more indicative of sympathetic overactivity, not autonomic dysfunction. Numbness of fingertips is not a typical feature of autonomic involvement. Choice C is incorrect as tachycardia and hypertension are more suggestive of sympathetic overactivity, and one-sided paralysis and amnesia are not specific to autonomic dysfunction. Choice D is incorrect as tachycardia and diaphoresis suggest sympathetic overactivity, while cool and clammy skin is more indicative of hypovolemia rather than autonomic dysfunction.
Question 3 of 5
Several minutes after sealing your adult trauma patient's sucking chest wound with an occlusive dressing secured on three sides, he begins to experience increasing shortness of breath, jugular vein distension, decreasing unilateral breath sounds on the affected side, and his blood pressure is less than 90 systolic and falling. Repeated attempts to relieve the pressure at the occlusive dressing have proven ineffective. At this point, which of the following should be initiated?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Immediate needle decompression using a 10- or 14-gauge catheter that is at least 2 or 2.5 inches long. Rationale: 1. Symptoms indicate tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening condition where air accumulates in the pleural space, causing pressure on the heart and lungs. 2. Needle decompression is the immediate intervention for tension pneumothorax to release trapped air and relieve pressure. 3. A longer catheter is needed to ensure successful decompression. 4. Translaryngeal Jet Ventilation (Choice B) is not recommended as it does not address the underlying issue of trapped air. 5. Endotracheal intubation (Choice C) may delay definitive treatment and worsen the patient's condition. 6. Removing the occlusive dressing (Choice A) without proper decompression can further exacerbate tension pneumothorax. Summary: Immediate needle decompression is crucial to treat tension pneumoth
Question 4 of 5
A 30-year-old man sustains a severely comminuted, open, distal right femur fracture. Immediate efforts should involve:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B (Tamponade of the wound with a pressure dressing) Rationale: 1. Tamponade prevents further bleeding and reduces the risk of hypovolemic shock. 2. Pressure dressing helps control bleeding and reduces the risk of infection. 3. Stabilizing the wound is crucial before further intervention. 4. Angiography, wound exploration, and realignment are not immediate priorities.
Question 5 of 5
In managing the head-injury patient which is the most initial step:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct initial step in managing a head-injury patient is to secure the airway (Choice A). This is crucial for ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation. Without a patent airway, the patient may suffer from hypoxia, leading to further brain injury. Obtaining c-spine film (Choice B) is important but not the most immediate concern. Supporting circulation (Choice C) is vital but comes after ensuring airway patency. Controlling scalp hemorrhage (Choice D) is also important but does not take precedence over securing the airway in the initial management of a head-injury patient.