ATI RN
Test Bank Physical Examination and Health Assessment Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following occurs in respiratory distress?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In respiratory distress, the skin between the ribs moves inward with inspiration, a phenomenon known as retractions. This is a sign of increased work of breathing as the body tries to pull in more air due to difficulty in breathing. The inward movement of the skin between the ribs indicates that the individual is not able to generate enough negative pressure in the chest cavity to inhale properly. This can be seen in conditions such as asthma, pneumonia, or other respiratory issues. Skin retractions are a concerning sign and may indicate a severe respiratory compromise that requires immediate medical attention. The other options listed do not specifically describe a characteristic of respiratory distress.
Question 2 of 9
Mrs. H. comes to your clinic, wanting antibiotics for a sinus infection. When you enter the room, she appears to be very angry. She has a raised tone of voice and states that she has been waiting for the past hour and has to get back to work. She states that she is unimpressed by the reception staff, the nurse, and the clinic in general and wants to know why the office wouldn't call in an antibiotic for her. Which of the following techniques is not useful in helping to calm this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acknowledging and taking responsibility for any part you may have played in provoking the patient's anger is important in effectively addressing the situation. By avoiding admission of your lateness, you may come across as dismissive of the patient's feelings and not addressing the issue at hand. It is essential to validate the patient's feelings and work towards finding a solution rather than avoiding the issue.
Question 3 of 9
A 55-year-old married homemaker comes to your clinic, complaining of 6 months of vaginal itching and discomfort with intercourse. She has not had a discharge and has had no pain with urination. She has not had a period in over 2 years. She has no other symptoms. Her past medical history consists of removal of her gallbladder. She denies use of tobacco, alcohol, and illegal drugs. Her mother has breast cancer, and her father has coronary artery disease, high blood pressure, and Alzheimer's disease. On examination she appears healthy and has unremarkable vital signs. There is no lymphadenopathy with palpation of the inguinal nodes. Visualization of the vulva shows dry skin but no lesions or masses. The labia are somewhat smaller than usual. Speculum examination reveals scant discharge, and the vaginal walls are red, dry, and bleed easily. Bimanual examination is unremarkable. The KOH whiff test produces no unusual odor and there are no clue cells on the wet prep. What form of vaginitis is this patient most likely to have?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The patient's presentation is consistent with atrophic vaginitis, also known as vaginal atrophy. This condition typically occurs in postmenopausal women due to a decrease in estrogen levels, leading to thinning, drying, and inflammation of the vaginal walls. Symptoms of atrophic vaginitis include vaginal dryness, itching, discomfort with intercourse, and sometimes light bleeding after intercourse. The absence of vaginal discharge and the presence of vaginal dryness and bleeding easily upon examination suggest atrophic vaginitis as the most likely cause in this patient. Other causes of vaginitis such as Trichomonas vaginitis, Candida vaginitis, and bacterial vaginosis typically present with different symptoms and findings on examination.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following is consistent with obturator sign?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The obturator sign is a physical examination maneuver used to assess for irritation of the obturator muscle due to an inflamed appendix that is in close proximity. This pain is typically felt in the right lower quadrant or hypogastric region. The sign is elicited by passively flexing the hip and knee of the patient, then internally rotating the hip. An alternative method is to position the patient on her left side and ask her to raise her right thigh against resistance while the examiner provides counterpressure. Pain experienced by the patient with these maneuvers is consistent with obturator sign, indicating possible appendicitis. Hence, option C is the correct answer.
Question 5 of 9
A 21-year-old receptionist comes to your clinic, complaining of frequent diarrhea. She states that the stools are very loose and there is some cramping beforehand. She states this has occurred on and off since she was in high school. She denies any nausea, vomiting, or blood in her stool. Occasionally she has periods of constipation, but that is rare. She thinks the diarrhea is much worse when she is nervous. Her past medical history is not significant. She is single and a junior in college majoring in accounting. She smokes when she drinks alcohol but denies using any illegal drugs. Both of her parents are healthy. Her entire physical examination is unremarkable. What is most likely the etiology of her diarrhea?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient's history of frequent loose stools with cramping, occurring since high school and worsening during periods of nervousness, along with occasional constipation, is characteristic of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). IBS is a functional gastrointestinal disorder that presents with symptoms such as abdominal pain or discomfort, bloating, and altered bowel habits (diarrhea, constipation, or both) without any evidence of organic disease. The absence of systemic symptoms like fever, weight loss, or blood in the stool, as well as normal physical examination findings, also support the diagnosis of IBS in this case. This condition is often triggered or exacerbated by stress or anxiety. Monitoring stress levels, dietary modifications, and possibly prescription medications may help manage IBS symptoms in this patient.
Question 6 of 9
You are seeing an elderly man with multiple complaints. He has chronic arthritis, pain from an old war injury, and headaches. Today he complains of these pains, as well as dull chest pain under his sternum. What would the order of priority be for your problem list?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct order of priority for the problem list in this case would be chest pain, headaches, arthritis, and war injury pain. Chest pain should always be a priority as it could indicate a serious or life-threatening condition such as a heart attack. Headaches, while important, are less urgent than chest pain. Arthritis can generally be managed without immediate intervention, making it a lower priority. Finally, the pain from the old war injury, while significant, is not as urgent as the other complaints.
Question 7 of 9
A 77-year-old retired nurse has an ulcer on a lower extremity that you are asked to evaluate when you do your weekly rounds at a local long-term care facility. All of the following are responsible for causing ulcers in the lower extremities except for which condition?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is not typically associated with causing ulcers in the lower extremities. The most common causes of lower extremity ulcers are arterial insufficiency, venous insufficiency, and diminished sensation in pressure points. Arterial insufficiency leads to decreased blood flow to the lower extremities, causing tissue damage and ulcers. Venous insufficiency results in poor circulation and increased pressure in the veins, leading to ulcers. Diminished sensation in pressure points, often seen in conditions like diabetes, can cause ulcers due to lack of feeling and increased risk of trauma. So, hypertension is not directly related to the development of lower extremity ulcers.
Question 8 of 9
You note that a patient has anisocoria on examination. Pathologic causes of this include which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Anisocoria refers to a condition where the pupils are of unequal size. Pathologic causes of anisocoria can include conditions such as Horner's syndrome. Horner's syndrome is a rare disorder caused by damage to the sympathetic nerves of the face and eye. Symptoms can include a constricted pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), and decreased sweating in the affected area. This results in anisocoria, where the affected pupil is smaller than the unaffected pupil. Other options listed (B-D) do not typically lead to pathologic anisocoria.
Question 9 of 9
Where is the point of maximal impulse (PMI) normally located?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The point of maximal impulse (PMI), also known as the apical impulse, is the point where the left ventricle is closest to the chest wall. Normally, the PMI is located in the left 5th intercostal space, around 7 to 9 cm lateral to the sternum. This area corresponds to the apex of the heart. By palpating the PMI, healthcare providers can assess the size, strength, and regularity of the heart's contractions, which can provide important diagnostic information about cardiac health. Locating the PMI accurately is essential for physical examination and diagnosis of cardiac conditions.