Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate after a lumbar puncture?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Have the patient lie flat for 6 to 8 hours after a lumbar puncture to prevent complications like post-lumbar puncture headache. Lying flat helps maintain CSF pressure and reduce the risk of leakage. B: Keeping the patient from eating or drinking for 4 hours is not necessary after a lumbar puncture. C: Monitoring pedal pulses q4h is irrelevant to post-lumbar puncture care. D: Keeping the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees for 24 hours is not recommended after a lumbar puncture as it may increase the risk of complications.

Correct Answer:

Rationale: Correct Answer: B: Ask about the chief concerns or problems. Rationale: After setting the agenda, the nurse should proceed by asking about the patient's chief concerns or problems to gather relevant information and focus the interview on the patient's needs. This step helps establish rapport and ensures the patient is actively involved in the conversation. Incorrect Choices: A: Beginning with introductions is important, but after setting the agenda, it is more crucial to address the patient's concerns. C: Explaining that the interview will be over in a few minutes is not appropriate as it may rush the patient and hinder open communication. D: Telling the patient about administering medications in 1 hour is not relevant at this stage and does not address the patient's immediate needs.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Subclavian veins. Lymph returns to the blood through the subclavian veins because they receive lymphatic drainage from the thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct. Lymphatic vessels merge into lymphatic ducts, which empty into the subclavian veins, allowing lymph to re-enter the bloodstream. The carotid arteries (A) carry oxygen-rich blood to the brain, the aorta (C) is the main artery of the body carrying oxygenated blood from the heart, and the inferior vena cava (B) returns deoxygenated blood from the lower body to the heart. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not involved in the return of lymph to the blood.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Adrenal cortex. Primary hyperaldosteronism is a condition where the adrenal cortex produces too much aldosterone hormone, leading to hypertension. The adrenal medulla secretes adrenaline and noradrenaline, not aldosterone, making option B incorrect. The pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon, not aldosterone, making option C incorrect. Option D is incorrect because the adrenal cortex is responsible for aldosterone secretion in primary hyperaldosteronism.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduced sneezing. Decongestants work by constricting blood vessels in the nasal passages, reducing swelling and congestion, which in turn can lead to a decrease in sneezing. Increased salivation (choice A) is not a typical effect of decongestants. Increased tearing (choice C) is more commonly associated with allergies or irritants. Headache (choice D) can be a side effect of decongestants due to their impact on blood vessels, but it does not necessarily indicate effectiveness in treating allergic rhinitis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because TPN (Total Parenteral Nutrition) is indeed given to patients with fluid restrictions, as it provides complete nutrition including fluids, electrolytes, and nutrients. On the other hand, PPN (Peripheral Parenteral Nutrition) is used for patients without fluid restrictions as it provides partial nutrition. A is incorrect because TPN is typically for long-term use and PPN for short-term use. B is incorrect as the caloric requirement does not determine the type of parenteral nutrition. D is incorrect because both TPN and PPN can be used for patients who are unable to eat orally.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. When someone is extremely confused, providing new information slowly and in small amounts can help prevent overwhelming stress and further confusion. This approach allows the individual to process information more effectively and reduces the risk of escalating confusion or delirium as a defense mechanism. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because destruction of brain cells, teaching progression, and giving minimal information are not directly related to managing confusion in this scenario.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: To carry out the plan of care. In the nursing process, implementation is the phase where nurses put the established care plan into action by delivering the interventions outlined to meet the client's needs. This step is crucial as it ensures that the care plan is executed effectively and efficiently. Establishing priorities (A) is done during the planning phase, identifying client outcomes (C) is part of the evaluation phase, and validating nursing diagnoses (D) is typically done during the assessment phase, not implementation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: The client’s airway should be assessed first. This is because airway management is the top priority in any emergency situation to ensure the patient can breathe. Without a patent airway, the patient's oxygenation and ventilation will be compromised, leading to serious complications or death. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because assessing the airway takes precedence over determining the reason for admission, reviewing medications, or assessing past medical history in an unconscious patient. These other assessments are important but not as critical as securing the airway to maintain the patient's breathing and oxygenation.