Which of the following NSAIDs is an oxicam derivative?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Piroxicam. Piroxicam is an oxicam derivative because it belongs to the oxicam class of NSAIDs. It is characterized by its oxicam structure containing a 1,2-benzothiazine ring. The other options, Indomethacin, Meclofenamic acid, and Diclofenac, do not have the oxicam structure. Indomethacin is an indole derivative, Meclofenamic acid is a fenamic acid derivative, and Diclofenac is an acetic acid derivative. Therefore, Piroxicam is the correct choice based on its specific chemical structure that classifies it as an oxicam derivative.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vitamin E. Vitamin E is known as the antisterility factor because it plays a crucial role in fertility and reproduction. It helps protect reproductive organs and improve fertility in both men and women. Vitamin B6 (choice B) is important for metabolism but not specifically related to fertility. Vitamin B1 (choice C) is essential for energy production but not known as an antisterility factor. Vitamin K (choice D) is important for blood clotting and bone health, not fertility. Thus, the correct answer is Vitamin E due to its specific role in promoting fertility and reproductive health.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Cholesterol synthesis inhibitors target a specific enzyme, reducing side effects. Step 2: They have a lower incidence of adverse effects compared to other lipid-lowering drugs. Step 3: Therefore, the statement that they are better tolerated is true. Summary: Choice A is correct because of the targeted mechanism and lower side effect profile compared to other lipid-lowering agents. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the rationale provided.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Elevated skeletal turnover. 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 (calcitriol) is administered for hypocalcemia in chronic renal failure, vitamin D-dependent rickets, and malabsorption of vitamin D. Elevated skeletal turnover is not an indication for calcitriol as it can exacerbate bone resorption. Administering calcitriol in such cases can lead to increased calcium release from bones and worsen the condition. Therefore, D is the correct answer.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this question, option D is the correct answer: "All of the above." A) Spironolactone reverses many of the manifestations of aldosteronism. This statement is true because spironolactone is a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist, which inhibits the action of aldosterone. This leads to the reversal of aldosterone-mediated effects such as sodium retention and potassium excretion. B) Spironolactone is also an androgen antagonist and is used in the treatment of hirsutism in women. This statement is true as spironolactone has anti-androgenic properties, making it effective in treating conditions like hirsutism by blocking the effects of androgens on hair follicles. C) Spironolactone is useful as a diuretic. This statement is true as spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that works by promoting the excretion of sodium and water while retaining potassium. Educationally, understanding the mechanisms of action of spironolactone is crucial for pharmacology students and healthcare professionals to effectively use this medication in clinical practice. Knowing that spironolactone can reverse aldosteronism manifestations, act as an androgen antagonist, and serve as a diuretic helps in selecting the appropriate indications for its use and monitoring for potential side effects.