Which of the following NSAIDs is an indol derivative?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Indomethacin is an indol derivative due to its chemical structure containing an indole ring. 2. Ibuprofen is a propionic acid derivative, not an indol derivative. 3. Meclofenamic acid is a fenamic acid derivative, not an indol derivative. 4. Diclofenac is an acetic acid derivative, not an indol derivative. Summary: B (Indomethacin) is the correct answer as it is the only option that is an indol derivative. A, C, and D are incorrect as they belong to different chemical classes.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because rickets is indeed a deficiency disease primarily affecting children due to lack of vitamin D, calcium, and sunlight exposure. Here's the rationale: 1. Rickets is characterized by defective bone growth, which aligns with the growth stage of children. 2. Rickets is caused by a lack of vitamin D or calcium, crucial for bone health. 3. Insufficient exposure to sunlight leads to decreased vitamin D synthesis. 4. Other choices are incorrect: - Choice B describes osteomalacia, a disease in adults, not rickets. - Choice C describes osteoporosis, a different condition in postmenopausal women. - Choice D is incorrect since rickets does not encompass all the conditions mentioned.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Answer B is correct because discontinuing a lipid-lowering diet solely based on the immediate reduction in plasma LDL cholesterol levels by 10% is not appropriate. The efficacy of a diet in managing lipid levels should be evaluated over a longer period, considering other factors like overall cardiovascular health and risk factors. Choosing to discontinue the diet based solely on the short-term reduction in LDL cholesterol levels can lead to overlooking other important aspects of cardiovascular health. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A: This statement is true because combining lipid-lowering drugs with an appropriate diet can enhance the overall effectiveness of therapy in managing lipid levels. C: This statement is also true as dietary interventions are usually recommended as the first-line approach before resorting to pharmacological therapy. D: This statement is true as certain combinations of lipid-lowering drugs can indeed work synergistically to achieve better outcomes in managing lipid levels.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oral. Calcifediol is typically administered orally because it undergoes hepatic hydroxylation to form the active form of vitamin D, calcitriol. Subcutaneous (B) and intravenous (C) routes would bypass this necessary metabolic step. Intranasal (D) administration is not a common route for vitamin D supplementation. Therefore, oral administration ensures proper metabolism and bioavailability of calcifediol.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Mineralocorticoids, such as aldosterone, act on the kidneys to increase sodium retention and potassium excretion. This process helps regulate blood pressure and electrolyte balance. Increased catabolism (choice A) is not a direct effect of mineralocorticoids. Increased gluconeogenesis (choice C) is a function of glucocorticoids, not mineralocorticoids. Deposition of fat on shoulders, face, and abdomen (choice D) is associated with Cushing's syndrome due to excess cortisol, not mineralocorticoids. Therefore, the correct answer is B as it aligns with the known physiological actions of mineralocorticoids.