Which of the following NSAIDs is a propionic acid derivative?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ibuprofen. Ibuprofen is a propionic acid derivative due to its chemical structure. It belongs to the same class of NSAIDs as naproxen and ketoprofen, which are also propionic acid derivatives. Ibuprofen works by inhibiting the enzyme cyclooxygenase, thereby reducing inflammation, pain, and fever. Choice B, Indomethacin, is incorrect as it is an acetic acid derivative. Choice C, Metamizole (Analgin), is incorrect as it is a pyrazolone derivative. Choice D, Diclofenac, is incorrect as it is an acetic acid derivative.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A): 1. Pernicious anemia is a condition caused by the inability of the stomach to absorb vitamin B12. 2. It is characterized by abnormally large red blood cells, gastrointestinal disturbances, and spinal cord lesions. 3. It predominantly affects elderly adults due to age-related decline in stomach acid production. 4. This choice accurately describes the key features and etiology of pernicious anemia. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B. This choice describes aplastic anemia, not pernicious anemia. C. This choice describes hypochromic anemia, not pernicious anemia. D. This choice is incorrect as only option A accurately describes pernicious anemia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Nicotinic acid (Niacin) primarily works by inhibiting lipolysis in adipose tissue, leading to decreased free fatty acids and triglycerides. 2. Triglycerides and LDL cholesterol are reduced by Niacin due to its effect on lipid metabolism. 3. High doses of Niacin can indeed cause hepatic or pancreatic disturbances, leading to the discontinuation of doses higher than 3 gm/day. 4. Cutaneous flushing and itching are common side effects of Niacin, not directly related to the drug's effect on apoproteins synthesis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 (calcifediol) is a precursor to 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 (calcitriol). Step 2: Calcitriol is the active form of vitamin D that stimulates intestinal calcium transport. Step 3: Calcifediol is converted into calcitriol in the kidneys. Step 4: Since calcifediol is less potent than calcitriol, it is less effective in stimulating intestinal calcium transport. Step 5: Therefore, hypercalcemia, a condition of high calcium levels in the blood, is less likely to occur with calcifediol compared to calcitriol. Summary: Choice A is correct because calcifediol is indeed less effective than calcitriol in stimulating intestinal calcium transport, leading to a lower risk of hypercalcemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the relationship between

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Intravenous. Plicamycin is a cytotoxic antibiotic that is administered intravenously to ensure direct delivery into the bloodstream for optimal absorption and distribution to target tissues. Subcutaneous and intranasal routes are not suitable for plicamycin due to its potency and potential irritation at the injection site. Oral administration is ineffective as plicamycin is poorly absorbed through the gastrointestinal tract and extensive first-pass metabolism would render it ineffective. Therefore, intravenous administration is the most appropriate route for plicamycin to achieve desired therapeutic effects.