ATI RN
Central and Peripheral Nervous System Drugs Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following muscle relaxants was most likely given to a patient who exhibited transient muscle fasciculations that progressed to generalized paralysis within 1 minute of administration?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Succinylcholine. Succinylcholine is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker that causes initial muscle fasciculations followed by flaccid paralysis within minutes. This pattern of transient fasciculations progressing to generalized paralysis aligns with the patient's symptoms. Cisatracurium (A) and Vecuronium (D) are non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers that do not typically cause fasciculations. Dantrolene (C) is a skeletal muscle relaxant used to treat malignant hyperthermia and muscle spasticity, but it does not cause the rapid progression of paralysis described in the scenario.
Question 2 of 5
This drug is effective in all forms of epilepsy in all age groups.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Carbamazepine. Carbamazepine is a broad-spectrum antiepileptic drug effective in various forms of epilepsy across all age groups. It works by stabilizing neuronal membranes and reducing repetitive firing of neurons. Acetazolamide (A) is a diuretic used for certain types of seizures. Ethosuximide (C) is mainly used for absence seizures. Felbamate (D) is reserved for refractory epilepsy cases due to its potential serious side effects. Therefore, Carbamazepine is the best choice for treating epilepsy across different forms and age groups.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following drugs was most likely prescribed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Levetiracetam. Levetiracetam is a commonly prescribed antiepileptic drug due to its broad spectrum of activity and favorable side effect profile. It is often used as a first-line treatment for various types of seizures. Carbamazepine, valproic acid, and phenobarbital are also antiepileptic drugs, but Levetiracetam is preferred in many cases due to its lower potential for drug interactions and side effects. Therefore, based on the information provided, Levetiracetam is the most likely drug to be prescribed in this scenario.
Question 4 of 5
A 54-year-old woman with a previously well-controlled seizure disorder was brought to the hospital because of recurrent, generalized tonic-clonic seizures. The patient was intubated and mechanically ventilated. She was treated with intravenous diazepam and fosphenytoin but continued to exhibit intermittent seizures and did not regain consciousness between them. A diagnosis of refractory status epilepticus was made. A large dose of which of the following drugs would be appropriate to add to the patient's therapy at this time?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Valproic acid. Valproic acid is a broad-spectrum antiepileptic drug effective in treating refractory status epilepticus. It acts on multiple mechanisms, making it suitable for cases not responding to first-line treatments. Diazepam (A) is already being used, and adding more might not be effective. Ethosuximide (B) is indicated for absence seizures, not generalized tonic-clonic seizures. Carbamazepine (D) is ineffective in treating status epilepticus.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following drugs most likely caused the patient's signs and symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lamotrigine. Lamotrigine is known to cause a rare but serious skin reaction called Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS). The patient's signs and symptoms are consistent with SJS, which include fever, sore throat, skin rash, and blistering. Gabapentin (A), Clonazepam (C), and Phenytoin (D) are not commonly associated with SJS. Summary: A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not known to cause SJS, unlike Lamotrigine which is a known culprit for this severe skin reaction.