ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Exam Practice Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following most accurately describes the antibacterial mechanism of penicillin:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Penicillin is a type of antibiotic that works by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis. Peptidoglycan is a critical component of the bacterial cell wall, providing structural support and preventing the cell from bursting. Penicillin specifically targets the final step in peptidoglycan synthesis, known as cross-linking, by binding to and inhibiting the enzyme transpeptidase. Without proper cross-linking of peptidoglycan, the bacterial cell wall becomes weak and compromised, leading to cell lysis and bacterial death. This mechanism makes penicillin highly effective in combating bacterial infections.
Question 2 of 5
A patient was admitted to the emergency department with a pulse oximeter reading of 85% after a successful prehospital resuscitation from cardiac arrest due to an asthma attack. What is the most important initial drug to administer as ordered?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Oxygen is the most important initial intervention for a patient with a low pulse oximeter reading (85%) to correct hypoxia and prevent further complications. While epinephrine (A) and albuterol (C) are used to treat asthma, oxygen is the priority to address the immediate hypoxia. Sodium bicarbonate (B) is not indicated unless there is severe metabolic acidosis.
Question 3 of 5
Assessing a patient after intravenous morphine administration, the nurse notes cold, clammy skin; a pulse of 40 beats/min; respirations of 10 breaths/min; and constricted pupils. Which medication will the patient likely need next?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient's symptoms—cold, clammy skin, bradycardia, respiratory depression, and constricted pupils—are classic signs of opioid overdose. Naloxone is the antidote for opioid overdose and should be administered immediately to reverse the life-threatening effects of morphine. Meloxicam, pentazocine, and propoxyphene are not appropriate in this situation. Nurses must recognize the signs of opioid toxicity and act quickly to administer naloxone, ensuring the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation are supported.
Question 4 of 5
Drugs can cause adverse events in a patient. Bone marrow toxicity is one of the most frequent types of drug-induced toxicity. The most serious form of bone marrow toxicity is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Aplastic anemia is the most severe form of bone marrow toxicity, characterized by pancytopenia and bone marrow failure. It can be life-threatening and requires immediate intervention. Thrombocytosis, leukocytosis, and granulocytosis are not typically associated with drug-induced bone marrow toxicity.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following has the shortest elimination half-life?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Elimination half-life measures how quickly a drug is cleared from plasma. Naloxone's half-life is about 1-2 hours, used for opioid reversal. Morphine's is 2-4 hours, reflecting its duration as an analgesic. Methadone's is long, 15-60 hours, suiting addiction maintenance. Fentanyl's is 2-4 hours, typical for anesthesia. Remifentanil, an ultra-short-acting opioid, has a half-life of 3-10 minutes due to rapid esterase metabolism, making it ideal for procedures needing quick offset. Its brevity contrasts with others, ensuring minimal residual effects, a key advantage in critical care settings where rapid recovery is essential.