Which of the following methods is the simplest heat-related method to sterilize metal?

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microbiology chapter 14 test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which of the following methods is the simplest heat-related method to sterilize metal?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Direct flaming. Direct flaming is the simplest heat-related method to sterilize metal because it involves passing the metal through a flame to kill microorganisms. The high temperature of the flame effectively destroys any bacteria or spores present on the metal surface. Incineration (A) is not practical for sterilizing metal as it involves burning at extremely high temperatures. Autoclaving (B) uses steam under pressure to sterilize, which is effective but more complex than direct flaming. Indirect heating (D) is not an effective method for sterilizing metal as it does not directly expose the metal to high temperatures required for sterilization.

Question 2 of 9

A patient with pulmonary tuberculosis is prescribed the most effective antituberculous antibiotic. Name this drug:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Rifampicin. Rifampicin is a first-line antibiotic for treating pulmonary tuberculosis due to its high efficacy against Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It works by inhibiting bacterial RNA synthesis. Furasolidone (A) is not commonly used for tuberculosis, Bactrim (B) is not a first-line drug for tuberculosis, and Streptocide (C) is not as effective as Rifampicin.

Question 3 of 9

Which one of the following statements about Campylobacter fetus is NOT CORRECT?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gram-positive rod-shaped bacterium. Campylobacter fetus is actually a Gram-negative bacterium. This is because it has a thin peptidoglycan layer in its cell wall, which does not retain the crystal violet stain used in the Gram-staining technique. It appears red or pink under a microscope after counterstaining with safranin. Therefore, statement A is incorrect. B: Optimal temperature for cultivation 35-37C - Correct, as Campylobacter fetus thrives at this temperature range. C: Opportunistic pathogen causes infections usually in newborns, immunocompromised patients, and cancer - Correct, as Campylobacter fetus can cause infections in these populations. D: Fastidious, microaerophile - Correct, as Campylobacter fetus is fastidious and requires specific growth conditions, including low oxygen levels.

Question 4 of 9

Virulence

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because virulence refers to the degree of pathogenicity of a microorganism, which can vary and is not a constant characteristic. It can be measured using LD50, which is the lethal dose that kills 50% of the test population. Therefore, all the statements in options A, B, and C are true and collectively provide a comprehensive understanding of virulence.

Question 5 of 9

The main structure components of Viruses are:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Nucleic acid and proteins. Viruses contain genetic material in the form of nucleic acids (DNA or RNA) surrounded by a protein coat. This genetic material carries instructions for viral replication. Proteins are also essential components of viruses, serving various functions like facilitating viral entry into host cells. Option A is incorrect as lipids are not main components of viruses. Option B is incorrect as lipids are not typically found in the main structure of viruses. Option D is incorrect as lipids are not primary components of viruses, and glycoproteins are not always present in the main structure of viruses.

Question 6 of 9

Cell mediated immunity has a leading role in:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Cell-mediated immunity plays a crucial role in combating infections with intracellular pathogens by activating T cells to directly kill infected cells. Facultative and obligate intracellular pathogens, such as viruses and some bacteria, require cell-mediated immunity for effective clearance. Option A is correct due to the specificity of this immune response. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are primarily associated with humoral immunity involving antibodies and not T cell responses against intracellular pathogens.

Question 7 of 9

For enteropathogenic E. coli is true:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC) attach to enterocytes via a type III secretion system. 2. Once attached, they form attaching and effacing lesions on the microvilli, leading to microvillus destruction. 3. This mechanism allows EPEC to cause diarrhea by disrupting the normal absorptive function of the intestines. Summary: - B (They are invasive and produce enterotoxin) is incorrect because EPEC are non-invasive and do not produce enterotoxins. - C (Cause disease clinically similar to bacterial) is vague and does not provide specific information about EPEC pathogenesis. - D (None of the above) is incorrect as A is the correct explanation for EPEC pathogenicity.

Question 8 of 9

Agents associated with human disease but generally not a serious health risk are classified in which of the following risk groups?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: RG2. RG2 is appropriate for agents associated with human disease that pose a moderate health risk. These agents may cause disease of varying severity, but generally do not result in serious health consequences. Other choices are incorrect because: A: RG1 is for agents not associated with disease in healthy adults, C: RG3 is for agents associated with serious or lethal human disease, and D: RG4 is for agents that pose a high risk of life-threatening disease and for which there are no treatments.

Question 9 of 9

In serologic reactions used in virology, a diagnostic antibody response should be taken into account if:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a fourfold increase in titer in the second serum sample indicates a significant rise in specific antibodies, which is crucial for diagnosing viral infections accurately. This increase is considered significant in serologic reactions as it shows a strong antibody response to the virus. A: A threshold increase may not be substantial enough to confirm a diagnostic antibody response. B: Dismissing the increase in titer would overlook important diagnostic information. C: A twofold increase may not be as indicative of a strong antibody response compared to a fourfold increase.

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