ATI RN
microbiology basic and clinical principles test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following methods can be used for diagnosis of respiratory tract infections
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All are correct. Culture of samples from the respiratory tract can identify specific pathogens, Immunofluorescence can detect viral antigens, and PCR can amplify and detect specific DNA/RNA sequences. Using all methods together provides a comprehensive approach for diagnosing respiratory tract infections. Culture alone may miss fastidious organisms, Immunofluorescence has limitations in sensitivity, and PCR requires specific primers. Therefore, combining these methods increases the likelihood of accurate diagnosis by covering a range of pathogens and improving sensitivity and specificity.
Question 2 of 9
During latency, HSV1 exists in what form:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During latency, HSV1 exists as episomes in neurons. This is because HSV1 establishes a lifelong latent infection in sensory neurons, where the viral genome remains as a circular episome in the nucleus. This form allows the virus to persist in a dormant state, avoiding detection by the immune system. Choice A is incorrect as HSV1 does not integrate into the host chromosome. Choice C is incorrect as latency is a well-documented phenomenon for HSV1. Choice D is incorrect as the correct answer is B.
Question 3 of 9
Which are the epidemic typhus vectors:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Head lice. Epidemic typhus is transmitted by the body louse, Pediculus humanus humanus, which is different from the head louse, Pediculus humanus capitis. Head lice are not known to transmit epidemic typhus. Body lice are the primary vectors for transmitting epidemic typhus. Fleas are vectors for other diseases such as plague, not epidemic typhus. Ticks are vectors for various diseases but not for epidemic typhus. Therefore, the correct vector for epidemic typhus transmission is body lice, making choice A the correct answer.
Question 4 of 9
For tuberculosis prevention the newborns got an injection of a vaccine. What vaccine was used?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: BCG. BCG vaccine is commonly used for tuberculosis prevention because it provides immunity against Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Mantoux is a test, not a vaccine. DTaP vaccine is for diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis, not tuberculosis. Anatoxin is a type of toxoid vaccine, not used for tuberculosis prevention. BCG vaccine has been shown to be effective in preventing severe forms of tuberculosis in infants, making it the appropriate choice in this scenario.
Question 5 of 9
What is the structure of bacterial flagella?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: protein filaments made of flagellin. Bacterial flagella are composed of flagellin proteins arranged in helical filaments. This structure allows for movement and propulsion of bacteria. A: 9+2 microtubule arrangement is incorrect because this structure is typically found in eukaryotic flagella, not bacterial flagella. C: Lipid bilayer is incorrect as it is a structural component of cell membranes, not bacterial flagella. D: Peptidoglycan layer is incorrect as it is a component of bacterial cell walls, not flagella.
Question 6 of 9
Francisella tularensis is a:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: non-spore forming encapsulated gram-negative bacterium. Francisella tularensis is a non-spore forming bacterium, which rules out choices A and D. It is encapsulated, which eliminates choice C. The encapsulation of the bacterium helps it evade the host immune system, leading to its pathogenicity. This encapsulated bacterium is responsible for causing the zoonotic disease tularemia in humans.
Question 7 of 9
The cell envelope of Gram-negative bacteria is composed of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because Gram-negative bacteria have a unique cell envelope structure consisting of a cytoplasmic membrane, a peptidoglycan layer, and an outer membrane. The cytoplasmic membrane is the innermost layer that separates the cytoplasm from the external environment. The peptidoglycan layer provides structural support to the cell. The outer membrane acts as an additional protective barrier and contains lipopolysaccharides. Choice B is incorrect because Gram-negative bacteria have an outer membrane in addition to the cytoplasmic membrane and peptidoglycan layer. Choice C is incorrect because Gram-negative bacteria have more than just a peptidoglycan layer in their cell envelope. Choice D is incorrect as the cell envelope of Gram-negative bacteria does have specific components.
Question 8 of 9
A fecal sample from a patient with diarrhea was cultured on Endo agar, resulting in colorless colonies. The bacteria were Gram-negative rods. What microorganism is most likely?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Shigella. On Endo agar, Shigella appears as colorless colonies due to its inability to ferment lactose. Shigella is a Gram-negative rod and is a common cause of diarrhea. Salmonella (A) and Escherichia coli (C) would typically produce pink colonies on Endo agar as they can ferment lactose. Proteus (D) is not commonly associated with diarrhea and would not be expected to grow on Endo agar.
Question 9 of 9
A blood culture from a patient with sepsis revealed Gram-negative diplococci. The organism was oxidase-positive and fermentative. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Neisseria meningitidis. This is because Neisseria meningitidis is a Gram-negative diplococci that is oxidase-positive and fermentative. Neisseria gonorrhoeae (choice A) is also a Gram-negative diplococci but is not fermentative. Haemophilus influenzae (choice C) is not a diplococci and Moraxella catarrhalis (choice D) is oxidase-negative. Thus, Neisseria meningitidis fits all the criteria provided in the question, making it the most likely causative agent for the sepsis in this patient.