ATI RN
microbiology basic and clinical principles test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following methods can be used for diagnosis of respiratory tract infections
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All are correct. Culture of samples from the respiratory tract can identify specific pathogens, Immunofluorescence can detect viral antigens, and PCR can amplify and detect specific DNA/RNA sequences. Using all methods together provides a comprehensive approach for diagnosing respiratory tract infections. Culture alone may miss fastidious organisms, Immunofluorescence has limitations in sensitivity, and PCR requires specific primers. Therefore, combining these methods increases the likelihood of accurate diagnosis by covering a range of pathogens and improving sensitivity and specificity.
Question 2 of 9
A child with a persistent sore throat and fever had a smear from the throat revealing rod-shaped bacteria with dark blue polar granules. What is the likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Corynebacterium diphtheriae. The presence of rod-shaped bacteria with dark blue polar granules suggests the presence of Corynebacterium diphtheriae, the causative agent of diphtheria. This bacterium is known for causing sore throat and fever, and the characteristic appearance on smear helps identify it. Streptococcus pyogenes (Choice B) typically appears as chains of cocci and is associated with strep throat. Haemophilus influenzae (Choice C) is a small, pleomorphic Gram-negative coccobacillus and is more commonly associated with respiratory infections. Klebsiella pneumoniae (Choice D) is a Gram-negative bacillus and is not typically associated with sore throat and fever in children.
Question 3 of 9
What is the function of bacterial fimbriae?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Adhesion to surfaces. Bacterial fimbriae are hair-like appendages that help bacteria attach to surfaces, such as host cells or medical devices. This adhesion is crucial for colonization and infection. DNA replication (B) occurs in the cell's nucleus, not on the surface. Protein synthesis (C) happens inside the cell, not on the fimbriae. Flagella movement (D) is the function of flagella, not fimbriae.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following viruses belongs to family Arenaviridae?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lassa virus. The rationale is as follows: 1. Lassa virus belongs to the family Arenaviridae, known for causing Lassa fever. 2. Rabies virus belongs to the Rhabdoviridae family. 3. Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever virus belongs to the Nairoviridae family. 4. Epstein-Barr virus belongs to the Herpesviridae family. In summary, Lassa virus is the correct answer because it is the only virus listed that belongs to the Arenaviridae family.
Question 5 of 9
Streptococcus pneumoniae are:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Alpha-hemolytic streptococci. Streptococcus pneumoniae are classified as alpha-hemolytic streptococci based on their ability to partially break down red blood cells, causing a greenish discoloration on blood agar plates. This distinguishes them from beta-hemolytic streptococci, which completely break down red blood cells. Streptococcus pneumoniae are not resistant to bile (choice A), as they are bile soluble. They are not stained by the Ziehl-Neelsen staining method (choice C), which is used for acid-fast bacteria such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis. They are sensitive to optochin (choice D), which is a key differentiating factor in identifying them from other alpha-hemolytic streptococci.
Question 6 of 9
If skin-allergic samples for tuberculosis are negative:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice B (Tuberculin is introduced) is correct: 1. Tuberculin test helps identify individuals with latent TB infection. 2. Negative skin-allergic samples suggest absence of active TB. 3. Introducing tuberculin can help confirm latent TB infection. 4. Antibiotics are not prescribed for negative skin-allergic samples. 5. Vaccines are not administered for TB diagnosis. Summary: - Choice A is incorrect as antibiotics are not prescribed for negative skin-allergic samples. - Choice C is incorrect as vaccines are not used for TB diagnosis. - Choice D is incorrect as introducing tuberculin is the appropriate step in this scenario.
Question 7 of 9
A fecal sample from a patient with diarrhea was cultured on Endo agar, resulting in colorless colonies. The bacteria were Gram-negative rods. What microorganism is most likely?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Shigella. On Endo agar, Shigella appears as colorless colonies due to its inability to ferment lactose. Shigella is a Gram-negative rod and is a common cause of diarrhea. Salmonella (A) and Escherichia coli (C) would typically produce pink colonies on Endo agar as they can ferment lactose. Proteus (D) is not commonly associated with diarrhea and would not be expected to grow on Endo agar.
Question 8 of 9
A female patient has symptoms of inflammation of urogenital tracts. A smear from the vaginal mucous membrane contained big unicellular pyriform organisms with a sharp spike on the back end of their bodies; big nucleus and undulating membrane. What protozoa were revealed in the smear?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoan parasite that causes trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection characterized by inflammation of urogenital tracts. The description of big unicellular pyriform organisms with a sharp spike on the back end of their bodies, big nucleus, and undulating membrane matches the morphology of Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas hominis and Trichomonas buccalis are different species that do not cause urogenital infections. Trypanosoma gambiense is a protozoan parasite causing African trypanosomiasis and does not match the described morphology or symptoms.
Question 9 of 9
Unlike eukaryotic cytoplasm, the prokaryotic one is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Simpler. Prokaryotic cytoplasm is simpler than eukaryotic cytoplasm because prokaryotic cells lack membrane-bound organelles such as a nucleus, mitochondria, and endoplasmic reticulum that are present in eukaryotic cells. Prokaryotic cytoplasm contains fewer components and structures compared to eukaryotic cytoplasm, making it less complex. Therefore, the prokaryotic cytoplasm is simpler in structure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because prokaryotic cytoplasm is not more complex than eukaryotic cytoplasm, there is a clear difference in structure between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cytoplasm, and the statement "None of the above" is not accurate as the correct answer is B.