ATI RN
Nursing Process Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following method if used by Wilma will best assure that the tracheostomy ties are not too tightly placed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Wilma places 2 fingers between the tie and neck. This method ensures that the tracheostomy ties are not too tightly placed by providing a standardized and easily replicable measurement. Placing 2 fingers ensures there is adequate space for proper airflow and movement without causing pressure or constriction. This method is a widely accepted practice in healthcare settings to prevent complications such as skin breakdown or restricted blood flow. Incorrect choices: B: The tracheotomy can be pulled slightly away from the neck - This does not provide a standardized measurement and may not accurately assess the tightness of the ties. C: James’ neck veins are not engorged - Monitoring neck veins does not directly correlate with the tightness of tracheostomy ties. D: Wilma measures the tie from the nose to the tip of the earlobe and to the xiphoid process - This method may not accurately reflect the appropriate tightness of the ties around the neck.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse in the postoperative unit prepares to receive a client after a balloon angioplasty of the carotid artery. Which of the ff items of priority should the nurse keep at the bedside for such client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. A: Blood pressure apparatus is essential to monitor for any signs of bleeding or clot formation after carotid angioplasty. 2. B: IV infusion stand is important but not the priority for immediate postoperative monitoring. 3. C: Call bell is important for the client to call for assistance but not the priority for immediate postoperative care. 4. D: Endotracheal intubation is not necessary after a carotid angioplasty and is not a priority item for bedside care. Summary: Monitoring blood pressure is crucial for detecting complications post carotid angioplasty. IV stand, call bell, and endotracheal intubation are important but not the priority in this scenario.
Question 3 of 9
An elderly nursing home resident who has always been alert and oriented is now showing signs of dehydration and has become confused. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely involved?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypomagnesemia. Dehydration can lead to electrolyte imbalances, and hypomagnesemia can cause confusion in elderly patients. Magnesium plays a crucial role in brain function and its deficiency can result in cognitive impairment. Hyponatremia (A) typically presents with symptoms like weakness and confusion but not necessarily dehydration. Hypercalcemia (B) and hyperkalemia (C) are less likely to cause confusion in this scenario. Therefore, hypomagnesemia is the most likely electrolyte imbalance involved in the elderly nursing home resident's confusion.
Question 4 of 9
What is the role of a nurse during scratch test to detect allergies?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Applying the liquid test antigen. During a scratch test to detect allergies, the nurse's role is to apply the liquid test antigen onto the skin to observe the body's reaction. This antigen contains potential allergens that may trigger a response in allergic individuals. By applying this antigen, the nurse can assess if the patient develops a raised wheal or redness at the site, indicating an allergic reaction. This step is crucial in identifying specific allergens causing the patient's symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as determining the type of allergy, measuring the length and width of the reaction, and documenting the findings are all important steps but do not directly relate to the initial action of applying the test antigen during a scratch test.
Question 5 of 9
While interviewing an older female patient of Asian descent, the nurse notices that the patient looks at the ground when answering questions. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Consider cultural differences during this assessment. In many Asian cultures, avoiding direct eye contact is a sign of respect and humility, especially when speaking to authority figures. By being aware of this cultural norm, the nurse can avoid misinterpreting the patient's behavior as a sign of depression or dishonesty. Asking the patient to make eye contact (choice B) may make the patient uncomfortable and disrupt the therapeutic relationship. Continuing with the interview and documenting depression (choice C) without considering cultural differences can lead to inaccurate assessment and inappropriate interventions. Notifying the health care provider for a psychological evaluation (choice D) is premature and unnecessary without first understanding the cultural context of the patient's behavior.
Question 6 of 9
What orders would likely be included fro a client diagnosed with multiple myeloma?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Corticosteroid therapy. In multiple myeloma, corticosteroids are commonly used to help reduce inflammation, suppress the immune system, and slow the growth of cancer cells. This treatment can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life for the client. A: Bed rest is not typically prescribed for multiple myeloma unless there are specific complications requiring immobilization. B: Fluid restriction is not a common treatment for multiple myeloma unless there is a specific need to manage fluid balance. D: Calcium replacement therapy may be necessary in some cases of multiple myeloma due to bone involvement, but it is not a primary treatment option compared to corticosteroid therapy in managing the disease.
Question 7 of 9
The normal range of hemoglobin in the blood of an adult:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The normal range of hemoglobin in adult blood is typically between 12-18 g/dL. This range is the most common and widely accepted range based on clinical guidelines and research studies. Hemoglobin levels outside this range may indicate anemia or other health conditions. Choice A (7-11 mg) is too low for normal hemoglobin levels in adults and indicates severe anemia. Choice B (14-20 mg) is slightly higher and could be normal for some individuals, but generally, 12-18 g/dL is the standard range. Choice D (20-26 mg) is too high and may indicate dehydration or other medical conditions.
Question 8 of 9
A patient had a lumbar injury. Which neurological test by the nurse would be affected?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Romberg’s test. Romberg’s test assesses a patient's ability to maintain balance with eyes closed, relying on proprioception from the lower limbs. A lumbar injury can affect proprioception, leading to impaired balance. Rhine’s test evaluates auditory function, not affected by a lumbar injury. Pupillary reaction assesses cranial nerve function, unrelated to a lumbar injury. The patellar reflex is a deep tendon reflex, primarily involving the spinal cord segments L2-L4, not directly affected by a lumbar injury.
Question 9 of 9
Following a splenectomy, a client has a hemoglobin (Hb) level of 7.5g/dl and has vertigo when getting out of bed. The nurse suspects abnormal orthostatic changes. The vital sign values that would most support the nurse’s analysis are:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Drop in blood pressure and rise in heart rate. After a splenectomy, the client is at risk for orthostatic hypotension due to decreased blood volume. A drop in blood pressure and a compensatory rise in heart rate are common orthostatic changes. This occurs because the body tries to maintain perfusion to vital organs. A rise in blood pressure and heart rate (Choice A) would not align with orthostatic changes. A rise in blood pressure and drop in heart rate (Choice B) is contradictory to the body's compensatory response to maintain perfusion. Therefore, the most supportive vital sign values for abnormal orthostatic changes in this client would be a drop in blood pressure and a rise in heart rate.