ATI RN
Kaplan and Sadocks Synopsis of Psychiatry Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following meets the DSM-IV-TR criteria for moderate mental retardation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the DSM-IV-TR criteria for moderate mental retardation includes an IQ range of 35-49, which typically corresponds to functioning at around the level of a 6 to 9-year-old. Choice D best fits this criteria as the individual has advanced to the sixth grade level academically, indicating a level of functioning consistent with moderate mental retardation. Choices A, B, and C do not meet the criteria as they suggest a higher level of functioning and independence than what is typically associated with moderate mental retardation.
Question 2 of 9
Which statement made by a patient just prior to being transported for a scheduled ECT treatment would result in cancellation of the treatment?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because asking about memory loss indicates a lack of informed consent and understanding of ECT procedure. Memory loss is a common side effect of ECT, and a patient should be well-informed about it before treatment. Choices B, C, and D do not raise concerns about the patient's understanding or readiness for ECT, making them incorrect. Choice B asks about dietary concerns, which do not directly impact the treatment. Choice C shows the patient's hope for improvement, which is a positive attitude. Choice D indicates the patient's desire for more information, which is a sign of engagement in their care.
Question 3 of 9
Which intervention would qualify as primary prevention of violent behaviors in children and adolescents?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because limiting exposure to violence on TV, video, and computer games falls under primary prevention by addressing risk factors before violent behaviors occur. This intervention helps reduce the likelihood of children and adolescents developing violent tendencies by minimizing their exposure to violent content that can influence their behavior. A: Forbidding the child to continue friendships with violent peers is more of a secondary prevention strategy targeting existing risk factors, not primary prevention. C: Seeking counseling for a child who has been experimenting with drugs is also a secondary prevention strategy focusing on addressing a specific risk factor, not primary prevention. D: Showing a unified approach to parenting when dealing with a violent child is a tertiary prevention strategy aimed at managing and reducing harm after the behavior has already occurred, not primary prevention.
Question 4 of 9
During a bereavement group, one of the members states, “I should have been the one to die. My husband had so much to offer.” The member was expressing:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ambivalence and low self-esteem. The member's statement reflects conflicting emotions (ambivalence) about her worth compared to her husband's. This indicates low self-esteem, as she believes she is less valuable. Unresolved anger (B) would involve blaming her husband, not herself. A need for attention (C) is not evident, as she is sharing personal feelings. Depression (D) may be present, but the statement specifically points to self-deprecation, not just a general feeling of sadness.
Question 5 of 9
The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) provides standards of care for which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Older adults. OBRA primarily focuses on setting standards of care for older adults in long-term care facilities, ensuring their safety and well-being. This is because older adults are a vulnerable population requiring specialized care and attention. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because OBRA does not specifically address very young individuals, those with intellectual communication difficulties, or individuals without medical insurance. The Act mainly pertains to the care and rights of older adults in long-term care settings.
Question 6 of 9
When sharing her feelings about separating from a therapy group, the patient stated, “I feel a bit sad and empty that I won’t be seeing you folks again.” What is the most accurate evaluation of the patient’s statement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the patient expressing feeling sad and empty about leaving the therapy group is a normal response to the termination of therapy. This indicates that the patient has developed attachments and a sense of belonging within the group, which is a common aspect of group therapy. It shows emotional investment in the therapeutic process and signifies progress in the patient's emotional awareness and ability to express feelings. Choice A is incorrect because the statement does not necessarily indicate regression but rather a normal emotional response. Choice B is incorrect as it assumes unconscious motivations without evidence. Choice D is incorrect as it is not necessary to question the patient's readiness based on the provided statement.
Question 7 of 9
During a grief-processing group, an elderly patient stated, “For the first time since my husband died, I’m having more good days than bad.” This statement suggests that the patient has:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Completed her "grief work" successfully. This statement indicates progress in the grieving process, moving towards acceptance and healing. The patient acknowledging having more good days than bad reflects a positive shift in coping with the loss, indicating that she has processed her grief and is beginning to adapt to life without her husband. This suggests that the patient has worked through her emotions, memories, and adjustments related to the loss, reaching a point where she is experiencing more peace and acceptance. Summary: A: Reestablishment is not the correct choice as it does not specifically address the completion of the grief work. B: Determining readiness to terminate the support group is premature, as the patient may still benefit from continued support. D: Replacing old memories with new ones is not supported by the patient's statement and does not necessarily indicate successful grief processing.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following meets the DSM-IV-TR criteria for moderate mental retardation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the DSM-IV-TR criteria for moderate mental retardation includes an IQ range of 35-49, which typically corresponds to functioning at around the level of a 6 to 9-year-old. Choice D best fits this criteria as the individual has advanced to the sixth grade level academically, indicating a level of functioning consistent with moderate mental retardation. Choices A, B, and C do not meet the criteria as they suggest a higher level of functioning and independence than what is typically associated with moderate mental retardation.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse counseling a patient with acute grief would assess the patient for:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because acute grief typically involves conflicting and unresolved emotions and thoughts related to the loss. The nurse would assess for unresolved issues to provide appropriate support and interventions. Choice A is incorrect as severe depressive symptoms may indicate complicated grief, not typical acute grief. Choice C is incorrect as increased arousal and hypervigilance are more characteristic of post-traumatic stress disorder. Choice D is incorrect as preoccupation with the image of the deceased may be a common experience in grief but does not encompass the full range of emotions and conflicts that acute grief entails.