Which of the following medications is used to treat the symptoms of an overactive bladder?

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Pharmacology Across the Lifespan ATI Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which of the following medications is used to treat the symptoms of an overactive bladder?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oxybutynin. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic medication that helps relax the bladder muscles, reducing urinary urgency and frequency in overactive bladder. Oxybutynin blocks the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter responsible for bladder contractions. This effect helps control symptoms of overactive bladder. Summary of incorrect choices: B: Loratadine is an antihistamine used for allergies and does not treat overactive bladder symptoms. C: Gabapentin is used for nerve pain and seizures, not specifically for overactive bladder. D: Cyclobenzaprine is a muscle relaxant used for muscle spasms, not for overactive bladder symptoms.

Question 2 of 5

A 70-year-old female with osteoporosis is prescribed raloxifene. Raloxifene works by:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inhibiting osteoclast-mediated bone resorption. Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that works by binding to estrogen receptors in bone tissue, inhibiting osteoclast activity, and reducing bone resorption. This helps to maintain bone density in patients with osteoporosis. Choices B and C are incorrect as raloxifene does not directly promote osteoblast activity or increase calcium absorption in the intestines. Choice D is also incorrect as raloxifene does not inhibit the synthesis of collagen.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following medications is used to reduce the risk of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that helps prevent blood clots, reducing the risk of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation. It is more effective than aspirin or clopidogrel in preventing stroke in this patient population. Heparin is not typically used for long-term stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation.

Question 4 of 5

A 60-year-old male with chronic asthma is prescribed salmeterol. Salmeterol works by:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because salmeterol is a long-acting beta-2 adrenergic agonist, which works by stimulating beta-2 adrenergic receptors on bronchial smooth muscle, leading to bronchodilation. This helps in relaxation of the airways and improved breathing in asthma patients. Option A is incorrect because salmeterol does not affect histamine release. Option C is incorrect as salmeterol does not inhibit leukotriene receptors. Option D is incorrect as salmeterol does not block acetylcholine receptors.

Question 5 of 5

Which of the following is a potential side effect of corticosteroid therapy in the long term?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Osteoporosis. Corticosteroid therapy can lead to decreased bone density over time, resulting in osteoporosis. This occurs due to the suppression of bone formation and increased bone resorption. Hypotension (choice A) is not a common side effect of corticosteroid therapy; rather, it can cause fluid retention and hypertension. Tachycardia (choice C) is also not a typical side effect of corticosteroids; instead, they may cause bradycardia. Hyperkalemia (choice D) is not directly associated with corticosteroid therapy; in fact, corticosteroids can lead to hypokalemia due to potassium loss.

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