Which of the following medications is used to treat depression by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Venlafaxine. Venlafaxine is a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI), which works by blocking the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, thereby increasing the levels of these neurotransmitters. This helps alleviate symptoms of depression. Rationale: 1. Sertraline (A) is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), primarily targeting serotonin. 2. Amitriptyline (B) is a tricyclic antidepressant that primarily acts on norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake, but it is not as selective as Venlafaxine. 3. Citalopram (C) is an SSRI that primarily targets serotonin reuptake, not norepinephrine. In summary, Venlafaxine is the correct choice as it specifically inhibits both serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because tramadol primarily works by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine. This mechanism of action helps to modulate the perception of pain in the central nervous system. Tramadol's opioid activity is weaker compared to other opioids, so it is not the primary mechanism of action. Inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis is the mechanism of NSAIDs, not tramadol. Blocking sodium channels in peripheral nerves is the mechanism of local anesthetics, not tramadol. Therefore, choice B is the most appropriate mechanism of action for tramadol in managing chronic pain.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Chloroquine is the correct answer as it is a well-established antimalarial drug targeting Plasmodium. It works by inhibiting the parasite's ability to break down hemoglobin. Clindamycin (A), Doxycycline (B), and Penicillin (D) are not typically used for treating malaria. Clindamycin is more commonly used for anaerobic infections, Doxycycline for bacterial infections, and Penicillin for bacterial infections unrelated to malaria.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice A: Alendronate: 1. Alendronate is a bisphosphonate medication that works by inhibiting bone resorption, leading to increased bone mineral density. 2. It is commonly prescribed for the treatment of osteoporosis to reduce the risk of fractures. 3. By increasing bone density, alendronate helps strengthen bones and prevent further bone loss in osteoporosis patients. Summary: - Choice B: Ranitidine is used to reduce stomach acid production and treat ulcers, not osteoporosis. - Choice C: Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug used for pain relief, not for increasing bone density. - Choice D: Propranolol is a beta-blocker used to treat high blood pressure and certain heart conditions, not osteoporosis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inhibiting glucagon release from the pancreas. Liraglutide is a glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) receptor agonist that stimulates insulin secretion and inhibits glucagon release, leading to improved blood glucose control. Increased insulin secretion (Choice A) is not the primary mechanism of action for liraglutide. Liraglutide does not directly affect renal glucose excretion (Choice C) or block glucose absorption in the intestine (Choice D). Inhibiting glucagon release is crucial in lowering blood glucose levels in patients with diabetes by reducing hepatic glucose output.