ATI RN
46 Free Patient Care Technician Practice Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following medications is used to prevent blood clot formation in patients with a-fib or pulmonary embolism, and decrease the risk of MI in patients with atherosclerosis as well as reduce the risk of stroke?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Losartan is the correct answer as it is an angiotensin II receptor blocker that helps prevent blood clot formation by reducing vasoconstriction and aldosterone secretion. It is commonly used in patients with a-fib, pulmonary embolism, atherosclerosis, and stroke prevention. Summary of incorrect choices: A: Nitroglycerin is used to treat angina by dilating blood vessels, not preventing blood clot formation. B: Lotensin is an ACE inhibitor used for hypertension, not for preventing blood clots. D: Streptokinase is a thrombolytic agent used to dissolve blood clots, not prevent their formation.
Question 2 of 5
An unresponsive adult trauma patient exhibits pale, cold, and clammy skin that appears ashen/cyanotic. He is breathing less than eight times a minute, has a heart rate of 32 beats a minute, and shows an irregular bradyarrhythmia on the monitor in lead II. He is experiencing frank hypotension that is barely palpable. Which of the following stages of shock is most likely causing his presentation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Uncompensated shock. In this scenario, the patient is presenting with severe signs of shock, including hypotension, bradycardia, bradyarrhythmia, and inadequate breathing. Uncompensated shock occurs when the body's compensatory mechanisms are overwhelmed, leading to decreased tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery. The patient's pale, cold, clammy skin and cyanosis indicate poor perfusion. The low heart rate and irregular rhythm suggest the heart is struggling to maintain cardiac output. The inadequate respiratory rate further impairs oxygenation. These findings collectively indicate that the patient is in a state of decompensation, unable to adequately compensate for the decreased perfusion. Irreversible shock (A) would involve complete organ failure and a fatal outcome. Reversible shock (C) implies that interventions could restore normal perfusion, which is not the case here. Compensated shock (D) would involve more effective compensatory mechanisms to maintain perf
Question 3 of 5
A 23-year-old man is shot in the lower abdomen. The most appropriate management is to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. In a gunshot wound to the lower abdomen, there is a high risk of intra-abdominal injuries requiring surgical intervention. Initiating fluid therapy helps stabilize the patient's hemodynamics. Transfer to the operating room is crucial for exploration and management of any internal injuries. Performing a diagnostic peritoneal lavage (choice A) may delay definitive management. Infusion of packed red blood cells (choice B) should be done after initial stabilization. Inserting a nasogastric tube and urinary catheter (choice C) are not the priority in this acute trauma situation.
Question 4 of 5
A trauma patient presents to your emergency department with inspiratory stridor and a suspected C-spine injury. Oxygen saturation is 88% on high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. The most appropriate next step is to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Maintaining inline immobilization and establishing a definitive airway is crucial in this scenario to secure the patient's airway given the presence of inspiratory stridor and potential C-spine injury. Performing a tracheostomy (B) or inserting thoracostomy tubes (C) are not indicated as the primary concern is airway management. Applying cervical traction (A) can exacerbate the C-spine injury and is not the priority over securing the airway to ensure oxygenation.
Question 5 of 5
A 36-year-old woman is beaten about the head and face and is brought to the local community hospital in full spinal immobilization. Her BP is 130/88, HR 70/min, and RR 18/min. Pulse oximetry indicated 98% while she was given 100% O2 via a non-rebreather mask. Her airway is clear. She has marked swellings on her face and several lacerations of her scalp that are not actively bleeding. She does not respond to verbal stimuli, but localizes to painful stimuli and opens her eyes. She moves all extremities equally. The remainder of her physical exam is normal. There is no neurosurgeon at the local hospital. After ensuring the patient's airway, the most appropriate course of action is to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Transfer the patient to a neurosurgeon without performing a CT-scan. Rationale: 1. Patient presents with head trauma and neurological symptoms. 2. CT-scan is the gold standard for assessing head injuries. 3. In this case, the patient needs prompt neurosurgical evaluation. 4. Delaying transfer for a CT-scan can worsen the patient's condition. 5. Immediate neurosurgical intervention may be required for intracranial injuries. 6. This decision prioritizes the patient's urgent need for specialized care over diagnostic imaging. Summary: - Choice A: Admitting for observation delays specialist care. - Choice B: X-ray of facial bones is unnecessary for neurological assessment. - Choice C: Complete cervical spine x-ray is not the priority in this scenario.