ATI RN
46 Free Patient Care Technician Practice Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following medications is used to prevent blood clot formation in patients with a-fib or pulmonary embolism, and decrease the risk of MI in patients with atherosclerosis as well as reduce the risk of stroke?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: C: Losartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker used to prevent blood clot formation in a-fib/pulmonary embolism, decrease MI risk in atherosclerosis, and reduce stroke risk by lowering blood pressure and improving cardiovascular outcomes. Incorrect choices: A: Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator used for angina but does not prevent blood clot formation or reduce stroke risk. B: Lotensin is an ACE inhibitor for hypertension, not specifically for preventing blood clots or reducing stroke risk. D: Streptokinase is a thrombolytic agent used to dissolve blood clots, not prevent their formation.
Question 2 of 5
An unresponsive adult trauma patient exhibits pale, cold, and clammy skin that appears ashen/cyanotic. He is breathing less than eight times a minute, has a heart rate of 32 beats a minute, and shows an irregular bradyarrhythmia on the monitor in lead II. He is experiencing frank hypotension that is barely palpable. Which of the following stages of shock is most likely causing his presentation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Uncompensated shock. This patient is exhibiting severe signs of shock, including hypotension, bradycardia, altered skin characteristics, and inadequate breathing. Uncompensated shock occurs when the body's compensatory mechanisms are overwhelmed, leading to a rapid decline in perfusion and organ function. In this case, the patient's vital signs indicate a critical state where the body is unable to maintain adequate tissue perfusion. Other choices are incorrect because irreversible shock occurs when vital organs have sustained significant damage, reversible shock indicates early recognition and intervention, and compensated shock denotes the body's ability to maintain perfusion despite initial insult.
Question 3 of 5
A 23-year-old man is shot in the lower abdomen. The most appropriate management is to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. In a trauma scenario like a gunshot wound to the lower abdomen, the priority is to transfer the patient to the operating room for surgical exploration and intervention. This is because penetrating abdominal injuries often require urgent surgical exploration to identify and control bleeding, repair organ damage, and prevent complications like peritonitis. Initiating fluid therapy is crucial to stabilize the patient's hemodynamic status. Performing a diagnostic peritoneal lavage (choice A) is outdated and has been replaced by more advanced imaging techniques. Infusing packed red blood cells (choice B) can be done after stabilizing the patient in the operating room. Inserting a nasogastric tube and urinary catheter (choice C) is not the immediate priority in this critical situation.
Question 4 of 5
A trauma patient presents to your emergency department with inspiratory stridor and a suspected C-spine injury. Oxygen saturation is 88% on high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. The most appropriate next step is to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Maintain inline immobilization and establish a definitive airway. In a trauma patient with inspiratory stridor and a suspected C-spine injury, maintaining inline immobilization is crucial to prevent worsening of the spinal injury. Establishing a definitive airway is necessary to secure the patient's airway and improve oxygenation. Immediate tracheostomy (choice B) is too invasive and carries risks. Applying cervical traction (choice A) can worsen the C-spine injury. Inserting bilateral thoracostomy tubes (choice C) is not indicated for a patient with stridor and a C-spine injury.
Question 5 of 5
A 36-year-old woman is beaten about the head and face and is brought to the local community hospital in full spinal immobilization. Her BP is 130/88, HR 70/min, and RR 18/min. Pulse oximetry indicated 98% while she was given 100% O2 via a non-rebreather mask. Her airway is clear. She has marked swellings on her face and several lacerations of her scalp that are not actively bleeding. She does not respond to verbal stimuli, but localizes to painful stimuli and opens her eyes. She moves all extremities equally. The remainder of her physical exam is normal. There is no neurosurgeon at the local hospital. After ensuring the patient's airway, the most appropriate course of action is to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Transfer the patient to a neurosurgeon without performing a CT-scan. Rationale: 1. The patient has sustained significant head trauma with neurological symptoms. 2. The patient is not responding to verbal stimuli but localizes to painful stimuli, indicating altered mental status. 3. There is no neurosurgeon at the local hospital, suggesting the need for transfer to a facility with neurosurgical capabilities. 4. Performing a CT-scan may delay necessary intervention, and in this case, immediate neurosurgical evaluation is crucial. Summary: A: Admitting the patient for observation is not appropriate as she requires specialized care. B: Obtaining x-ray of facial bones is not a priority in this scenario and does not address the potential neurological injury. C: While a complete x-ray evaluation of the cervical spine is important, neurosurgical evaluation takes precedence in this case to assess for possible intracranial injuries.