ATI RN
Advanced Pharmacology Across the Lifespan Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following medications is used as a first-line treatment for type 2 diabetes mellitus?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metformin. Metformin is recommended as the first-line treatment for type 2 diabetes because it effectively lowers blood sugar levels, has a good safety profile, and can reduce the risk of cardiovascular events. It works by decreasing glucose production in the liver and improving insulin sensitivity. Insulin (A) is typically used when other medications are not effective enough. Glipizide (C) and Pioglitazone (D) are alternative options but have more side effects and risks compared to metformin.
Question 2 of 5
A 24-year-old woman experienced severe motion sickness whenever she traveled by air or sea. Diphenhydramine taken before a trip was effective in minimizing her symptoms. The therapeutic effect of the drug was most likely due to blockade of which of the following pairs of central receptors?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (Histaminergic and muscarinic). Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine that blocks histamine receptors in the central nervous system, alleviating symptoms of motion sickness. Histamine plays a key role in motion sickness. Additionally, the drug also blocks muscarinic receptors, which are involved in various physiological functions. Choices A and C involve receptors not directly related to motion sickness. Choice B involves GABA and serotonin, which are not the primary receptors targeted in motion sickness.
Question 3 of 5
A59-year-old man with a body mass index of 42 and a long history of poorly controlled hypertension was recently diagnosed with migraine headaches. Which of the following anti-migraine drugs would be contraindicated in this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ergotamine. In this case, ergotamine is contraindicated due to the patient's poorly controlled hypertension. Ergotamine can cause vasoconstriction, potentially worsening hypertension and increasing the risk of cardiovascular events. Aspirin (A), acetaminophen (B), and ibuprofen (D) are safer options for migraine treatment in this patient as they do not have significant vasoconstrictive effects and are less likely to exacerbate hypertension.
Question 4 of 5
A54-year-old man at a scheduled ophthalmic check-up was found to have increased intraocular pressure. The man had been suffering from open-angle glaucoma for 2 years, but up until the current visit, the disease was found to be well controlled by local treatment with timolol and latanoprost. Drugs taken recently by the patient included over-the-counter preparations for episodic headache, heartburn, and insomnia. Which of the following drugs could have caused the patient's increased intraocular pressure?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Diphenhydramine. Diphenhydramine is an anticholinergic drug that can cause an increase in intraocular pressure by dilating the pupil and affecting the eye's ability to drain fluid properly. The patient's increased intraocular pressure could be due to the use of diphenhydramine for insomnia. Acetaminophen (A), omeprazole (B), and ibuprofen (C) do not typically cause an increase in intraocular pressure. Acetaminophen is a pain reliever, omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor used for heartburn, and ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug.
Question 5 of 5
A hydrophilic medicinal agent has the following property:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.