Which of the following medications is commonly prescribed for the management of type 1 diabetes?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Type 1 diabetes is characterized by the body's inability to produce insulin. 2. Insulin is the primary treatment for type 1 diabetes as it replaces the missing hormone. 3. Metformin (choice A) is typically used for type 2 diabetes. 4. Sulfonylureas (choice C) and Glinides (choice D) stimulate insulin production, not suitable for type 1 diabetes.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inhibiting the action of HMG-CoA reductase in the liver. Pravastatin is a statin medication that works by inhibiting the enzyme HMG-CoA reductase, which plays a key role in the liver's production of cholesterol. By blocking this enzyme, pravastatin reduces the liver's ability to produce cholesterol, leading to lower levels of LDL cholesterol in the bloodstream. This mechanism helps to lower the risk of cardiovascular events in patients with hyperlipidemia. Choice A is incorrect because pravastatin does not inhibit the absorption of cholesterol in the intestines; it primarily acts in the liver. Choice C is incorrect because pravastatin primarily lowers LDL cholesterol levels rather than increasing HDL cholesterol levels. Choice D is incorrect because blocking bile acid reabsorption is not the primary mechanism of action of pravastatin in managing hyperlipidemia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Binding to opioid receptors in the central nervous system. Oxycodone is an opioid analgesic that exerts its effects by binding to opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord, which modulates pain perception. This mechanism of action is how oxycodone provides pain relief. A: Blocking sodium channels in peripheral nerves is incorrect because this mechanism is associated with local anesthetics, not opioids like oxycodone. C: Increasing the release of serotonin is incorrect as oxycodone does not directly affect serotonin levels. D: Inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine is incorrect as this is a mechanism seen in certain antidepressants, not opioids like oxycodone.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Sumatriptan is the correct answer because it is a specific medication called a triptan that is commonly prescribed to treat acute migraine attacks by targeting serotonin receptors to reduce inflammation and constrict blood vessels in the brain. Ibuprofen and aspirin are general pain relievers that may help with mild migraines but are not as effective for acute attacks. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and seizures, not for migraine treatment.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Inhibiting potassium channels in the heart. Amiodarone works by prolonging the action potential duration and refractory period by inhibiting potassium channels. This helps to stabilize the heart's rhythm in atrial fibrillation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because amiodarone does not directly affect sodium channels, beta-adrenergic receptors, or calcium influx into the myocardium. Sodium channel blockers are class I antiarrhythmics, beta-blockers target beta-adrenergic receptors, and drugs that increase calcium influx are typically used for other indications like heart failure.