Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: IV morphine is the correct choice as it is a potent analgesic and has a rapid onset of action to reduce shortness of breath (SOB) in a crisis situation. Step 2: Oral cortisone (A) is not suitable for quick relief of SOB as it has a slower onset of action. Step 3: IM meperidine (C) is an opioid analgesic but not commonly used for managing SOB in end-stage respiratory disease. Step 4: IV propranolol (D) is a beta-blocker and not indicated for immediate relief of SOB in a crisis situation.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because optimum sleep helps regulate breathing patterns during an EEG. Waking the client at midnight allows them to have a full night's rest, ensuring they are well-rested and their breathing is stable for accurate EEG results. Choice A is incorrect as excess sleep does not affect nervousness. Choice C is incorrect as waking the client does not help them fall asleep naturally during the EEG. Choice D is incorrect as headache prevention is not directly related to waking the client at midnight.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because nipple discharge and a breast nodule are classic signs of breast cancer. Nipple discharge can be bloody or clear, and a breast nodule is a lump that feels different from the surrounding tissue. Fever (choice A) is not a common sign of breast cancer. Breast changes during menstruation (choice C) are normal hormonal fluctuations. Fever and erythema of the breast (choice D) are more indicative of an infection rather than breast cancer. Therefore, choice B is the most relevant sign of breast cancer among the options provided.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Assessment of neurologic signs establishes baseline for post-op care. 2. Helps detect any changes post-surgery. 3. Enables prompt intervention if any issues arise. 4. Planning activities (B) is not a priority pre-surgery. 5. Enema (C) may not be necessary for all surgeries. 6. Explaining complications (D) is important but not a primary pre-op nursing care.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bleeding precautions. With low platelets (50,000/ul), the client is at risk for bleeding. Platelets help with blood clotting, so precautions to prevent bleeding are essential. This includes avoiding activities that can cause injury, using a soft toothbrush, and reporting any signs of bleeding. Summary: B: Isolation to prevent infection - This is not related to the client's lab values. C: Seizure precautions - Not relevant to the client's lab values. D: Control of pain with analgesics - Pain management is not the priority given the client's lab values indicating a risk of bleeding.