Which of the following medication is not indicated for the treatment of muscle spasms?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why A is correct: 1. Baclofen is a muscle relaxant primarily used for treating muscle spasticity, not muscle spasms. 2. Baclofen acts on GABA receptors in the spinal cord to reduce muscle hyperactivity. 3. Tizanidine, Cyclobenzaprine, and Carisoprodol are all indicated for the treatment of muscle spasms. 4. Tizanidine acts centrally to inhibit excitatory neurotransmitter release, Cyclobenzaprine is a muscle relaxant with sedative effects, and Carisoprodol is a centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxant. Summary: Baclofen is not indicated for the treatment of muscle spasms because it is primarily used for muscle spasticity. Tizanidine, Cyclobenzaprine, and Carisoprodol are more commonly prescribed for muscle spasms due to their mechanisms of action.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Short acting bronchodilator. During an acute asthma attack, a short-acting bronchodilator (such as albuterol) is the preferred medication to relieve symptoms quickly by dilating the airways. This medication acts rapidly to open up the airways and provide immediate relief of wheezing and shortness of breath. Long-acting bronchodilators (choice B) are not recommended for acute symptom relief. Inhaled corticosteroids (choice C) are used for long-term control of asthma symptoms and not for immediate relief during an acute attack. Combining methylxanthine and long-acting bronchodilator (choice D) is not the standard treatment for acute wheezing in asthma.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Indistinct disk edge. Increased intracranial pressure causes papilledema, resulting in swelling and elevation of the optic disk. This leads to a blurred or indistinct disk edge. Pulsating veins (choice A) are seen in conditions like arteriovenous malformations, not specifically indicative of increased intracranial pressure. Clear disk edge (choice C) and normal retinal appearance (choice D) are not consistent with the findings associated with increased intracranial pressure.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tension headache. The key features in the scenario are the bilateral location of the headache, duration of 5 days, absence of nausea and photophobia, and the patient's occupation as a computer programmer. Tension headaches are typically bilateral, mild to moderate in intensity, and often related to stress, posture, and prolonged screen time. The fact that over-the-counter medication only dulled the pain supports the diagnosis of tension headache. Summary of other choices: A: Cluster headaches typically have a unilateral location, severe intensity, and are associated with autonomic symptoms like tearing of the eye. B: Analgesic rebound headaches occur due to overuse of pain medications, leading to worsening of headaches when the medication wears off. D: Migraine headaches often present with unilateral throbbing pain, nausea, and sensitivity to light and sound, which are not present in this case.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because knowing the age of the first period can give insight into the patient's reproductive health and potential risks. Early or late onset of menstruation can be indicators of hormonal imbalances, reproductive disorders, or potential fertility issues. This information is crucial for assessing the patient's overall gynecological health and guiding appropriate interventions. Choice A is incorrect because the age of the first period is not directly related to determining the patient's current level of physical fitness. Choice C is incorrect because the age of the first period does not indicate the patient's dietary habits. Choice D is incorrect because the age of the first period is relevant to sexual health assessments as it provides valuable information about the patient's reproductive health.