Which of the following media is the most selective for Vibrio cholerae?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: TCBS. Thiosulfate-citrate-bile salts-sucrose (TCBS) agar is the most selective for Vibrio cholerae due to its high salt content, bile salts, and sucrose. Vibrio cholerae can grow well in alkaline conditions, which are provided by TCBS agar. MacConkey's agar (A) is selective for gram-negative bacteria, but not specifically for Vibrio cholerae. Chocolate agar (B) is a non-selective medium suitable for fastidious organisms. SS agar (C) is selective for Salmonella and Shigella species, not Vibrio cholerae.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Burri-Gins. This staining method specifically targets the detection of capsules in bacteria. It involves staining the capsules with crystal violet and the background with safranin. This staining technique helps visualize the capsules as a distinct halo around the bacteria. Summary: - Choice B (Ziehl-Neelsen) is used for acid-fast staining to detect Mycobacterium species. - Choice C (Neisser) is used for staining Neisseria species. - Choice D (Gram) is a common staining method used to differentiate bacteria based on cell wall composition (Gram-positive and Gram-negative), but it does not specifically target capsules.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all three bacteria (Salmonella enterica, Escherichia coli, Pseudomonas aeruginosa) are known to produce endotoxins, specifically lipopolysaccharides in their cell walls. Endotoxins are released upon bacterial cell death and can trigger an immune response, leading to septic shock. Salmonella and E. coli are common causes of bacterial infections, while Pseudomonas is associated with nosocomial infections. Therefore, all of the above choices are correct in terms of producing endotoxins that can cause septic shock. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually because they do not encompass all the bacteria known to produce endotoxins that can lead to septic shock.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: nonproprietary. The generic name of a drug is the official, nonproprietary name given to a drug by an organization such as the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA). This name is not owned by any specific company and is used universally to identify the drug's active ingredient. The generic name helps to communicate the specific medication being prescribed and allows for cost-effective options for consumers. A: Trade name refers to the brand name given to a drug by a pharmaceutical company. B: Proprietary name is another term for the trade name, specific to the company that produces the drug. C: Chemical name refers to the exact chemical composition of the drug, which may not be user-friendly or easily recognized by healthcare professionals or consumers.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Protein A is a virulence factor specific to Staphylococcus aureus. This protein binds to the Fc region of immunoglobulins, inhibiting opsonization and phagocytosis. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Coagulase negative staphylococcus (choice A) does not produce Protein A. Micrococcus (choice C) is a different genus and does not possess Protein A. Choice D is incorrect because Protein A is indeed found in Staphylococcus aureus.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Shigella dysenteriae. Shigella causes dysentery, characterized by bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain. Shigella is a non-lactose-fermenting, Gram-negative rod. B: Salmonella typhi causes typhoid fever, not typically associated with abdominal pain and diarrhea. C: Escherichia coli, a common gut bacteria, can cause diarrhea but typically ferments lactose. D: Proteus vulgaris is not a common cause of gastrointestinal infection and is not typically associated with abdominal pain and diarrhea.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Amebiasis. The patient's symptoms of gastrointestinal disturbance and liver abscess are indicative of an infection with Entamoeba histolytica, the protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis. The patient's travel history to an African country also increases the likelihood of contracting this disease, as it is more prevalent in tropical regions. Toxoplasmosis (A) is primarily associated with exposure to cat feces, Leishmaniasis (B) is transmitted through sandfly bites, and Malaria (C) is caused by Plasmodium parasites transmitted through mosquito bites. Therefore, these options are incorrect given the patient's presentation and travel history.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: The symptoms of optic nerve neuritis, memory impairment, and cramps are indicative of ethambutol toxicity. Step 2: Ethambutol is known to cause optic nerve toxicity leading to neuritis, as well as CNS toxicity causing memory impairment. Step 3: Ethambutol can also lead to peripheral neuropathy manifesting as cramps. Step 4: Isoniazid is associated with peripheral neuropathy and hepatotoxicity but not with optic nerve neuritis or memory impairment. Step 5: PASA is not commonly used for tuberculosis treatment and does not cause the described symptoms. Step 6: Rifampicin is known for hepatotoxicity and flu-like symptoms, but not specifically for optic nerve neuritis, memory impairment, or cramps. Summary: Ethambutol is the correct answer due to its known side effects of optic nerve toxicity, CNS toxicity, and peripheral neuropathy, which align with the presented symptoms. Ison

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Schizogony is the process in protozoans where multiple nuclear divisions occur before cell division. This results in the formation of multiple daughter cells. - A: Budding is a form of asexual reproduction where a new organism grows from an outgrowth on the parent. - B: Mitosis is a type of cell division that results in two identical daughter cells. - D: Fragmentation is a form of asexual reproduction where an organism breaks into fragments, each developing into a new organism.