Which of the following MAO inhibitors prevents the 1-methyl 4-Phenyl 1,2,3,6 tetrahydropyridine's (MPTP) selective action in destroying the dopaminergic nigro-striatal neurons?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C) Selegiline. Selegiline is a selective irreversible MAO-B inhibitor that prevents the selective action of MPTP in destroying dopaminergic nigro-striatal neurons. Tranylcypromine and Phenelzine are non-selective MAO inhibitors that inhibit both MAO-A and MAO-B. They do not specifically target MAO-B like Selegiline does, so they do not offer the same neuroprotective effects against MPTP-induced neurotoxicity. Educational Context: Understanding the mechanism of action of MAO inhibitors and their specific effects on neurotransmitters is crucial in pharmacology. Selegiline's selective inhibition of MAO-B has neuroprotective effects, making it a valuable treatment for neurodegenerative disorders like Parkinson's disease. This knowledge helps healthcare professionals make informed decisions when choosing medications for patients with CNS disorders.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is D) Perioral tremor. This extra-pyramidal effect seen with antipsychotic agents is also known as rabbit syndrome because of the characteristic rhythmic protrusion and retrusion movements of the lips resembling a rabbit nibbling. Acute dystonia reaction (option A) is characterized by sustained muscle contractions, usually involving the neck, jaw, or tongue, leading to abnormal postures or repetitive movements. Parkinsonian syndrome (option B) presents with symptoms similar to Parkinson's disease, such as tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia. Tardive dyskinesia (option C) involves involuntary, repetitive movements of the face, tongue, and limbs and is a late-appearing side effect of long-term antipsychotic medication use. Understanding the extra-pyramidal effects of antipsychotic drugs is crucial for healthcare professionals, particularly pharmacists, nurses, and physicians, to monitor patients for adverse drug reactions. Recognizing these side effects early can help in adjusting treatment regimens to minimize discomfort and improve patient outcomes. It also highlights the importance of patient education regarding medication adherence, potential side effects, and the need for regular follow-up with healthcare providers.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Phenobarbitone is a long-acting barbiturate that acts as a CNS depressant. It is particularly effective in treating tonic-clonic seizures, also known as grand mal seizures, which involve a combination of muscle rigidity and convulsions. Option A, "Tonic-clonic seizures," is the correct answer because Phenobarbitone works by enhancing the activity of the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA in the brain, which helps reduce the excessive neuronal activity associated with tonic-clonic seizures. Option B, "Absence seizures," are characterized by brief lapses in consciousness and typically involve a different underlying mechanism compared to tonic-clonic seizures. Phenobarbitone is not the first-line treatment for absence seizures which are better managed with other anti-seizure medications. Option C, "Atonic seizures," involve sudden loss of muscle tone and are also not typically treated with Phenobarbitone as these seizures have different triggers and mechanisms. Option D, "All of the above," is incorrect because Phenobarbitone is not the preferred treatment for all types of generalized seizures. In an educational context, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to understand the mechanisms of action and appropriate use of different anti-seizure medications to provide optimal care for patients with epilepsy and seizure disorders. Understanding the specificity of each drug for different seizure types helps in tailoring treatment plans to individual patient needs, ensuring better outcomes and minimizing side effects.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer for the question is option A) Chloroprocaine. Chloroprocaine is a short-acting local anesthetic commonly used for procedures requiring a rapid onset and short duration of action, typically lasting between 30 to 60 minutes. Chloroprocaine's short duration of action is due to its rapid metabolism by plasma esterases, making it suitable for procedures where a quick recovery is desired. In contrast, the other options have longer durations of action: B) Bupivacaine is a long-acting local anesthetic with a duration of action ranging from 2 to 4 hours. It is often used for procedures requiring prolonged pain relief. C) Lidocaine has an intermediate duration of action, typically lasting around 60 to 90 minutes. It is widely used for various procedures due to its efficacy and safety profile. D) Prilocaine also has an intermediate duration of action, similar to lidocaine, lasting around 60 to 90 minutes. It is commonly used in combination with other local anesthetics for synergistic effects. Understanding the duration of action of different local anesthetics is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially those involved in anesthesia and pain management. Choosing the appropriate local anesthetic based on the duration required for a specific procedure is essential to ensure effective pain control and patient safety.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this quiz question about intravenous anaesthetics, the correct answer is D) All of the above. Thiopental, propofol, and etomidate are all examples of intravenous anaesthetics used for inducing anesthesia in clinical practice. Thiopental is a barbiturate that acts as a short-acting anaesthetic agent by enhancing the activity of the neurotransmitter GABA in the brain. Propofol is a sedative-hypnotic agent that acts quickly, providing rapid induction of anesthesia and a short duration of action. Etomidate is a non-barbiturate sedative-hypnotic agent with a rapid onset of action and is commonly used for induction of anesthesia, especially in hemodynamically unstable patients. The other options are incorrect because they are all intravenous anaesthetic agents commonly used in clinical practice, each with its own unique pharmacological properties and clinical indications. Understanding the pharmacology of CNS stimulant drugs is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially those working in anesthesia and critical care settings. Knowing the specific characteristics of each intravenous anaesthetic allows for safe and effective administration of these medications to achieve the desired clinical outcomes while minimizing risks and complications for patients undergoing various medical procedures.