ATI RN
NCLEX Practice Questions Physical Assessment Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following lymph node groups is most commonly involved in breast cancer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The pectoral lymph node group, also known as the Level III lymph nodes, is the most commonly involved in breast cancer metastasis. These lymph nodes are located along the lower border of the pectoralis minor muscle and are an important regional drainage site for breast tissue. Therefore, in cases of breast cancer, the pectoral lymph nodes are frequently affected due to their proximity to the breast tissue.
Question 2 of 9
A mother brings her 11 month old to you because her mother-in-law and others have told her that her baby is jaundiced. She is eating and growing well and performing the developmental milestones she should for her age. On examination you indeed notice a yellow tone to her skin from head to toe. Her sclerae are white. To which area should your next questions be related?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Since the baby is exhibiting jaundice, which is a condition characterized by the yellowing of the skin, it is important to inquire about the family history of liver diseases. Jaundice can be a sign of liver dysfunction or disease, so understanding the family history of liver diseases can provide valuable insights into potential underlying causes for the baby's jaundice. In this case, it is crucial to explore this area further to determine if there may be any genetic predispositions or familial conditions that could be contributing to the baby's presentation of jaundice.
Question 3 of 9
A 72-year-old teacher comes to your clinic for an annual examination. She is concerned about her risk for peripheral vascular disease and states that there is a place in town that does tests to let her know her if she has this or not. Which of the following disease processes is a risk factor for peripheral vascular disease?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Coronary artery disease (CAD) is a significant risk factor for peripheral vascular disease (PVD). CAD is a condition where plaque builds up in the coronary arteries that supply blood to the heart muscle. This process is called atherosclerosis. Similarly, in PVD, atherosclerosis occurs in the peripheral arteries, affecting blood flow to the extremities, most commonly the legs. Individuals with CAD often have systemic atherosclerosis, which puts them at higher risk for developing PVD. Therefore, it is important for the 72-year-old teacher with CAD to be aware of this risk factor for PVD and consider appropriate screening and preventive measures.
Question 4 of 9
How should you determine whether a murmur is systolic or diastolic?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: To determine whether a murmur is systolic or diastolic, you should judge the relative length of systole and diastole by auscultation. Systolic murmurs occur during systole, which is the phase of the cardiac cycle when the heart is contracting and pushing blood out of the chambers. Diastolic murmurs occur during diastole, which is the phase when the heart is relaxing and filling with blood. By carefully listening to the timing of the murmur in relation to the cardiac cycle, you can determine if it is systolic or diastolic. Palpating the carotid pulse (Choice A) or radial pulse (Choice B) can help assess the pulse characteristics, but it does not directly determine whether a murmur is systolic or diastolic. Correlating the murmur with a bedside heart monitor (Choice D) may provide additional information about heart rate or rhythm, but it does not specifically indicate
Question 5 of 9
Mr. Patel is a 64-year-old man who was told by another care provider that his liver is enlarged. Although he is a life-long smoker, he has never used drugs or alcohol and has no knowledge of liver disease. Indeed, on examination, a liver edge is palpable 4 centimeters below the costal arch. Which of the following would you do next?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Mr. Patel's case involves an enlarged liver, which warrants further investigation to determine the underlying cause. An ultrasound of the liver would provide valuable information regarding the size, shape, and texture of the liver, helping to identify any potential abnormalities such as liver cirrhosis, fatty liver disease, or liver tumors. This imaging study can also help differentiate between different conditions that may be causing the liver enlargement, guiding subsequent diagnostic and treatment decisions. Therefore, obtaining an ultrasound of the liver is the most appropriate next step in evaluating Mr. Patel's condition.
Question 6 of 9
Mark is a contractor who recently injured his back. He was told he had a "bulging disc" to account for the burning pain down his right leg and slight foot drop. The vertebral bodies of the spine involve which type of joint?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The vertebral bodies of the spine involve cartilaginous joints. Cartilaginous joints are connected by cartilage, which allows for slight movement and flexibility. In the spine, the cartilaginous joints between vertebral bodies are called intervertebral discs. These discs act as shock absorbers and provide cushioning between each vertebra, helping to prevent bone-on-bone contact. In Mark's case, the presence of a bulging disc suggests that there is an issue with the cartilaginous joint between his vertebral bodies, leading to the compression of a spinal nerve and causing the burning pain down his right leg and slight foot drop.
Question 7 of 9
A 76-year-old retired farmer comes to your office complaining of abdominal pain, constipation, and a low-grade fever for about 3 days. He denies any nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea. The only unusual thing he remembers eating is two bags of popcorn at the movies with his grandson, 3 days before his symptoms began. He denies any other recent illnesses. His past medical history is significant for coronary artery disease and high blood pressure. He has been married for over 50 years. He denies any tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. His mother died of colon cancer and his father had a stroke. On examination he appears his stated age and is in no acute distress. His temperature is 9 degrees and his other vital signs are unremarkable. His head, cardiac, and pulmonary examinations are normal. He has normal bowel sounds and is tender over the left lower quadrant. He has no rebound or guarding. His rectal examination is unremarkable and his fecal occult blood test is negative. His prostate is slightly enlarged but his testicular, penile, and inguinal examinations are all normal. Blood work is pending. What diagnosis for abdominal pain best describes his symptoms and signs?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis for this patient's symptoms and signs is acute diverticulitis. His presentation of abdominal pain, constipation, and low-grade fever, along with tenderness over the left lower quadrant, is consistent with diverticulitis, which is inflammation or infection of small pouches (diverticula) that can develop in the colon. The history of recent onset of symptoms after consuming popcorn, typically a high-fiber food that can exacerbate diverticulitis, further supports this diagnosis. The negative fecal occult blood test makes more acute intra-abdominal processes like acute appendicitis less likely. Acute cholecystitis would present with right upper quadrant pain, and mesenteric ischemia typically presents with severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting, as well as signs of abdominal distress.
Question 8 of 9
A 26-year-old woman comes to your clinic, complaining of leakage of stool despite generally normal, pain-free bowel movements. She denies any blood in her stool or on the toilet paper. She has had no recent episodes of diarrhea. Her past medical history includes a spontaneous vaginal delivery 3 months ago. She had a fourth-degree tear of the perineal area (from the vagina through the rectum) that was surgically repaired after delivery. A few days later the patient developed an abscess in the anal area that had to be incised and drained. She denies using any tobacco, alcohol, or illegal drugs. Her mother and father are both in good health. She denies any weight gain, weight loss, fever, or night sweats. She is still breast-feeding without any problems. On examination you visualize a small opening anterior to the anus with some surrounding erythema. There is not a mass or other inflammation on inspection. Digital rectal examination reveals smooth rectal walls with no blood. She has no pain during the rectal examination. Bimanual vaginal examination is also normal. What anal or rectal disorder is the most likely cause of her symptom?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most likely cause of the woman's symptom of stool leakage despite normal bowel movements is an anorectal fistula. An anorectal fistula is an abnormal, tunnel-like connection between the anal canal or rectum and the skin around the anus. In this case, the small opening anterior to the anus with surrounding erythema on examination suggests the presence of a fistula.
Question 9 of 9
Which is true of splitting of the second heart sound?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Splitting of the second heart sound is when the aortic and pulmonic valves close at slightly different times, resulting in two distinct components to the sound. This split is best heard over the apex of the heart, typically with the diaphragm of the stethoscope. The aortic component is heard first and represents closure of the aortic valve, followed by the pulmonic component, representing closure of the pulmonic valve. The split can narrow during inspiration and widen during expiration, which is important to keep in mind during assessment.