ATI RN
Nursing Process Practice Questions Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
. Which of the following laboratory test results would the nurse expect to find in a client diagnosed with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for correct answer C: In Hashimoto's thyroiditis, an autoimmune disorder causing hypothyroidism, we expect to see normal to elevated TSH levels due to the pituitary gland stimulating the thyroid to produce more hormones. T4 and T3 levels may be within normal range or slightly decreased. Choice C reflects this pattern with T4 at 22 ug/dl, T3 at 200 ng/dl, and TSH at 0.1 uIU/ml. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: - Choice A: T4 and T3 levels are higher than expected in Hashimoto's thyroiditis, and TSH should be elevated, not stated as normal. - Choice B: An undetectable TSH level is typically seen in hyperthyroidism, not hypothyroidism like Hashimoto's. - Choice D: T4 and T3 levels are significantly lower than expected, and TSH is much higher than typically seen in Hashimoto's
Question 2 of 9
Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for a client with Addison’s disease?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Excessive fluid volume. In Addison's disease, there is a deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone leading to sodium loss and water retention. This imbalance can result in excessive fluid volume. A) Risk for infection is not directly related to Addison's disease. B) Urinary retention is not a common symptom of Addison's disease. D) Hypothermia is not a typical manifestation of Addison's disease.
Question 3 of 9
A client with cancer that has metastazised to the liver is started on chemotherapy- His physician has specified divided doses of the antimetabolite. The client asks why he could take the drug in divided doses. The appropriate response is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Divided doses produce greater cytotoxic effects on the diseased cells." Dividing the doses of the antimetabolite allows for more consistent levels of the drug in the bloodstream, ensuring sustained exposure to the cancer cells. This continuous exposure enhances the drug's cytotoxic effects, increasing its efficacy in targeting and destroying the diseased cells. Options A and B provide vague or incorrect information, while option D is misleading as antimetabolites do not prevent cell division, but rather disrupt DNA synthesis.
Question 4 of 9
What is an important consideration regarding TPN administration?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Aseptic technique prevents infection at IV site. 2. TPN is a high-risk solution, requiring strict aseptic administration. 3. Contaminated site can lead to sepsis or other serious complications. 4. Choice B increases risk of contamination. 5. Choice C increases risk of bacterial growth. 6. Choice D may introduce air or contamination. Summary: Choice A is correct as it emphasizes infection prevention. Choices B, C, and D pose risks of contamination, bacterial growth, or air introduction.
Question 5 of 9
Wilma knew that the maximum time when suctioning James is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (30 seconds) because the maximum recommended time for suctioning a patient is typically around 10-15 seconds for each pass. Prolonged suctioning can lead to tissue damage, hypoxia, and increased risk of infection. In this case, given the patient's symptoms and medical history (vomiting, weight loss, dehydration, hypotension), it is crucial to limit suction time to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they exceed the safe duration for suctioning and increase the risk of harm to the patient. Choice D, in particular, is significantly longer than the recommended time and could pose serious risks to the patient's health in this situation.
Question 6 of 9
To combat the most common adverse effects of chemotherapy, the nurse would administer an:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Antiemetic. Chemotherapy commonly causes nausea and vomiting as adverse effects. Antiemetics are medications specifically designed to prevent or alleviate nausea and vomiting. Administering an antiemetic helps to manage these side effects and improve the patient's comfort and compliance with treatment. Antibiotics (choice B) are used to treat bacterial infections and are not directly related to combating chemotherapy side effects. Antimetabolites (choice C) are a type of chemotherapy drug, not used to combat its side effects. Anticoagulants (choice D) are used to prevent blood clots and are not indicated for managing chemotherapy-related nausea and vomiting.
Question 7 of 9
After a transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy, a client is likely to undergo hormone replacement therapy. A transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy is performed to treat which type of cancer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: After a transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy, hormone replacement therapy is needed due to the removal of the pituitary gland. This surgery is typically done to treat pituitary carcinoma, making choice C the correct answer. Pituitary carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the pituitary gland. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not involve the pituitary gland. Esophageal carcinoma affects the esophagus, laryngeal carcinoma affects the larynx, and colorectal carcinoma affects the colon and rectum. Therefore, the correct choice, C, is the only one related to the pituitary gland and the procedure described.
Question 8 of 9
For which of the following problems should the nurse monitor in the patient with multiple myeloma?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pathological fractures. In multiple myeloma, abnormal plasma cells can weaken the bones, leading to fractures even with minimal trauma. The nurse should monitor for signs of bone pain, decreased mobility, and pathological fractures to prevent complications. Uncontrolled bleeding (A) is not typically associated with multiple myeloma. Liver engorgement (B) is more commonly seen in conditions like congestive heart failure or liver disease. Respiratory distress (C) is not a common manifestation of multiple myeloma. Therefore, the nurse should focus on monitoring for pathological fractures as a priority in a patient with multiple myeloma.
Question 9 of 9
As part of primary cancer prevention program, an oncology nurse answers questions from the public at health fair. When someone asks about the laryngeal cancer, the nurse should explain that:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct: 1. Laryngeal cancer is strongly linked to smoking and alcohol consumption. 2. Both smoking and alcohol use are modifiable risk factors, meaning they can be prevented. 3. By avoiding smoking and excessive alcohol intake, individuals can significantly reduce their risk of developing laryngeal cancer. 4. Therefore, laryngeal cancer is considered one of the most preventable types of cancer. Summary of why the other choices are incorrect: B. Inhaling polluted air can be a risk factor for laryngeal cancer, so this statement is inaccurate. C. Laryngeal cancer occurs more frequently in men than women, so this statement is incorrect. D. Squamous cell carcinoma, not adenocarcinoma, is the most common type of laryngeal cancer, making this statement incorrect.