ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
. Which of the following laboratory test results would suggest to the nurse that a client has a corticotrophin- secreting pituitary adenoma?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Corticotropin-secreting pituitary adenoma leads to excess adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) production. 2. High corticotropin levels would be expected due to the adenoma's overproduction. 3. The high cortisol levels occur as a result of increased ACTH stimulating cortisol release from the adrenal glands. 4. Therefore, choice B (high corticotropin and high cortisol levels) is the correct answer. Summary: - Choice A is incorrect because low cortisol levels would not be expected in a client with a corticotrophin-secreting pituitary adenoma. - Choice C is incorrect because low corticotropin levels would not align with the excessive ACTH production from the adenoma. - Choice D is incorrect as both low corticotropin and low cortisol levels would not be consistent with the pathophysiology of a corticotrophin-secreting pituitary adenoma.
Question 2 of 9
To treat cervical cancer, a client has had an applicator of radioactive material placed in the vagina. Which observation by the nurse indicates a radiation hazard?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because having the head of the bed at a 30-degree angle can cause the radioactive material to shift, potentially leading to an uneven distribution of radiation. This could result in harmful exposure to surrounding tissues. A: Maintaining the client on strict bed rest is important to prevent displacement of the radioactive applicator. C: Providing a complete bed bath each morning is necessary for hygiene and does not pose a radiation hazard. D: Checking the applicator's position every 4 hours is essential to ensure proper placement and does not indicate a radiation hazard.
Question 3 of 9
A client reports difficulty breathing, stating, 'I can’t catch my breath.' What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because measuring oxygen saturation will provide objective data to assess the client's respiratory status accurately. This step is crucial in identifying the severity of the client's breathing difficulty and determining the appropriate intervention. Encouraging deep breathing exercises (B) may worsen the client's condition if there is an underlying respiratory problem. Simply documenting the client's statement (C) without immediate action can delay necessary interventions. Providing oxygen without further assessment (D) can be harmful if the client's oxygen saturation is already high. Overall, option A is the most appropriate as it involves a proactive and evidence-based approach to address the client's reported breathing difficulty.
Question 4 of 9
What size of suction catheter would Wilma use for James, who is 6 feet 5 inches in height and weighing approximately 145 lbs?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct size of suction catheter for James would be Fr. 5. The selection of suction catheter size is based on the patient's height and weight, as well as the secretions to be cleared. A Fr. 5 catheter is appropriate for an average adult like James, as it balances between being too small or too large. Fr. 12 and Fr. 18 are too large for his size and could cause trauma, while Fr. 10 is slightly larger than needed, increasing the risk of mucosal damage. Therefore, Fr. 5 is the most suitable choice for James.
Question 5 of 9
Before administering a food feeding the nurse knows to perform which of the following assessments/
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because assessing the GI tract is crucial before feeding to ensure proper digestion and absorption. Bowel sounds, last BM, and distention indicate GI function. The client's neurologic status and gag reflex are important to prevent aspiration. Option B is not a primary concern before feeding. Option C is incorrect as formula should be warmed to room temperature before feeding.
Question 6 of 9
To monitor the severity of a patient’s heart failure, which of the ff. assessments is the most appropriate for the nurse to include as a daily assessment in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight. Monitoring daily weight is crucial in assessing fluid retention and worsening heart failure symptoms. Weight gain can indicate fluid overload, a common complication in heart failure. The other choices (B: Appetite, C: Calorie count, and D: Abdominal girth) are not as directly related to monitoring heart failure severity. Appetite and calorie count may be affected by various factors unrelated to heart failure, while abdominal girth may not provide specific information on fluid status. Monitoring weight allows for early intervention and adjustments in treatment to prevent exacerbation of heart failure symptoms.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse develops a nursing diagnostic statement for a patient with a medical diagnosis of pneumonia with chest x-ray results of lower lobe infiltrates. Which nursing diagnosis did the nurse write?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Impaired gas exchange related to alveolar-capillary membrane changes. This is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a patient with pneumonia and lower lobe infiltrates. The rationale is that pneumonia causes inflammation and fluid accumulation in the alveoli, impairing the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs. This directly affects gas exchange. Choice A is incorrect because ineffective breathing pattern is a broad nursing diagnosis that does not specifically address the underlying issue of impaired gas exchange in pneumonia. Choice B is incorrect as the risk of infection related to the chest x-ray procedure is unrelated to the patient's current condition of pneumonia. Choice C is also incorrect as dehydration does not directly correlate with the patient's diagnosis of pneumonia and lower lobe infiltrates.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is gathering data on a patient. Which data will the nurse report as objective data?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Objective data are measurable and observable facts. Respirations (C) of 16 per minute is objective data as it is a quantifiable measurement that can be counted and recorded. It is not influenced by personal interpretation or bias. Choices A, B, and D are subjective data as they rely on the patient's feelings, perceptions, or symptoms, which can vary and are open to interpretation. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer as it represents concrete, verifiable information that can be used in the patient's assessment and care planning.
Question 9 of 9
Nurses identifying outcomes and related nursing interventions must refer to the standards and agency policies for setting priorities, identifying and recording expected client outcomes, selecting evidence-based nursing interventions, and recording the plan of care. Which of the following are recognized standards?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B (State Nurse Practice Acts) Rationale: State Nurse Practice Acts outline the legal scope of nursing practice, including standards for setting priorities, identifying client outcomes, and selecting evidence-based nursing interventions. These laws are specific to nursing practice, ensuring that nurses follow guidelines tailored to their profession. Nurses must adhere to these standards to provide safe and effective care. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Professional physicians' organizations - While physicians' organizations may provide guidelines for medical practice, they do not set standards specific to nursing practice. C: The Joint Commission - The Joint Commission focuses on accreditation for healthcare organizations, not setting standards for nursing practice. D: The Agency for Health Care Research and Quality - AHRQ conducts research and provides evidence-based information but does not establish standards for nursing practice.