. Which of the following laboratory test results would suggest to the nurse that a client has a corticotrophin- secreting pituitary adenoma?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Corticotropin-secreting pituitary adenoma leads to excess adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) production. 2. High corticotropin levels would be expected due to the adenoma's overproduction. 3. The high cortisol levels occur as a result of increased ACTH stimulating cortisol release from the adrenal glands. 4. Therefore, choice B (high corticotropin and high cortisol levels) is the correct answer. Summary: - Choice A is incorrect because low cortisol levels would not be expected in a client with a corticotrophin-secreting pituitary adenoma. - Choice C is incorrect because low corticotropin levels would not align with the excessive ACTH production from the adenoma. - Choice D is incorrect as both low corticotropin and low cortisol levels would not be consistent with the pathophysiology of a corticotrophin-secreting pituitary adenoma.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct size of suction catheter for James would be Fr. 5. The selection of suction catheter size is based on the patient's height and weight, as well as the secretions to be cleared. A Fr. 5 catheter is appropriate for an average adult like James, as it balances between being too small or too large. Fr. 12 and Fr. 18 are too large for his size and could cause trauma, while Fr. 10 is slightly larger than needed, increasing the risk of mucosal damage. Therefore, Fr. 5 is the most suitable choice for James.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because assessing the GI tract is crucial before feeding to ensure proper digestion and absorption. Bowel sounds, last BM, and distention indicate GI function. The client's neurologic status and gag reflex are important to prevent aspiration. Option B is not a primary concern before feeding. Option C is incorrect as formula should be warmed to room temperature before feeding.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 125 mL/h. To calculate the infusion rate per hour, we divide the total volume (1000 mL) by the total time in hours (8 hours). 1000 mL / 8 hours = 125 mL/h. This ensures a consistent and accurate infusion rate throughout the 8-hour period. Choice A (80 mL/h) is incorrect because it underestimates the infusion rate. Choice B (100 mL/h) is incorrect because it does not divide the total volume by the total time correctly. Choice D (150 mL/h) is incorrect because it overestimates the infusion rate.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a decreased number of functioning acetylcholine receptor sites would result in the disease. Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that transmits signals between nerves and muscles. If there are fewer receptor sites for acetylcholine to bind to, this can lead to impaired nerve-muscle communication, causing the disease. Choice A is incorrect because a genetic defect in acetylcholine production would not directly affect the receptor sites. Choice B is incorrect because a reduced amount of acetylcholine would still be able to bind to the available receptor sites. Choice D is incorrect because inhibiting the enzyme Ache would not directly impact the receptor sites.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Malnutrition. Malnutrition weakens the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to contracting tuberculosis. A well-nourished individual has a stronger immune response to fight off TB bacteria. Exposure to toxic gases (A), congenital abnormalities (B), and obstruction by tumor (C) do not directly predispose a client to TB. Malnutrition is the key factor as it impairs the immune system's ability to combat the TB bacteria effectively.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. In the Snellen eye chart test, the first number (20) represents the distance at which the client is viewing the chart, and the second number (40) represents the distance at which a person with normal vision can read the same line. Therefore, a client with 20/40 vision sees letters at 20 feet that others with normal vision can read at 40 feet. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the interpretation of the 20/40 vision result from the Snellen eye chart test. B is incorrect because the client does not see letters at 40 feet that others can read at 20 feet. Choices C and D are incorrect because the Snellen eye chart test measures visual acuity, not color perception.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Objective data are measurable and observable facts obtained through physical examination or diagnostic tests. In this case, "Respirations 16" is a quantifiable and observable measurement, making it objective data. It is not influenced by personal interpretation or feelings. The other choices, such as "States 'doesn't feel good'", "Reports a headache", and "Nauseated" are subjective data because they are based on the patient's feelings or experiences, which can vary depending on individual perception and interpretation, making them less reliable for making clinical decisions. By focusing on objective data like "Respirations 16", the nurse can provide a more accurate assessment of the patient's condition.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Dressing changes twice a day help maintain a clean wound environment, reducing the risk of infection. 2. Regular dressing changes promote proper wound healing by facilitating moisture balance and removal of dead tissue. 3. It is a direct intervention that addresses the patient's poor wound healing. 4. Teaching the patient about signs of infection (B) is important but does not directly address the wound healing process. 5. Instructing the family on dressing changes (C) is helpful but should not substitute direct patient care. 6. Refocusing the patient from body image changes (D) is not directly related to improving wound healing.