. Which of the following laboratory test results would suggest to the nurse that a client has a corticotrophin- secreting pituitary adenoma?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Corticotropin-secreting pituitary adenoma leads to excess adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) production. 2. High corticotropin levels would be expected due to the adenoma's overproduction. 3. The high cortisol levels occur as a result of increased ACTH stimulating cortisol release from the adrenal glands. 4. Therefore, choice B (high corticotropin and high cortisol levels) is the correct answer. Summary: - Choice A is incorrect because low cortisol levels would not be expected in a client with a corticotrophin-secreting pituitary adenoma. - Choice C is incorrect because low corticotropin levels would not align with the excessive ACTH production from the adenoma. - Choice D is incorrect as both low corticotropin and low cortisol levels would not be consistent with the pathophysiology of a corticotrophin-secreting pituitary adenoma.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because assessing the GI tract is crucial before feeding to ensure proper digestion and absorption. Bowel sounds, last BM, and distention indicate GI function. The client's neurologic status and gag reflex are important to prevent aspiration. Option B is not a primary concern before feeding. Option C is incorrect as formula should be warmed to room temperature before feeding.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a decreased number of functioning acetylcholine receptor sites would result in the disease. Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that transmits signals between nerves and muscles. If there are fewer receptor sites for acetylcholine to bind to, this can lead to impaired nerve-muscle communication, causing the disease. Choice A is incorrect because a genetic defect in acetylcholine production would not directly affect the receptor sites. Choice B is incorrect because a reduced amount of acetylcholine would still be able to bind to the available receptor sites. Choice D is incorrect because inhibiting the enzyme Ache would not directly impact the receptor sites.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because right-sided weakness is typically associated with damage or impairment in the left lobe of the brain. The brain controls the opposite side of the body, so weakness on the right side indicates left brain involvement. This is known as contralateral control. The other choices are incorrect because expressive aphasia is associated with left brain damage, problems in judging distance and proprioception are related to parietal lobe damage, and orientation to time and space is more related to frontal lobe damage. Therefore, the most accurate analysis by the nurse would be to consider the affected lobe as the right lobe in this case.