ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing First Chapter Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following laboratory findings is most consistent with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a severe condition characterized by widespread inflammation in the lungs leading to increased pulmonary vascular permeability, non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema, and respiratory failure. In ARDS, the alveolar-capillary barrier is disrupted, resulting in fluid accumulation in the alveoli and impaired gas exchange.
Question 2 of 5
A patient with a history of multiple myeloma presents with weakness, bone pain, and recurrent infections. Laboratory tests reveal anemia, hypercalcemia, renal insufficiency, and monoclonal spike on serum protein electrophoresis. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Multiple myeloma is a plasma cell neoplasm characterized by the presence of abnormal monoclonal plasma cells in the bone marrow, which produce a monoclonal spike on serum protein electrophoresis. The clinical presentation of weakness, bone pain, and recurrent infections is typical of multiple myeloma. Anemia can result from bone marrow infiltration by the abnormal plasma cells, hypercalcemia is due to bone destruction and release of calcium, renal insufficiency can result from hypercalcemia and protein deposition in the kidneys, and the monoclonal spike in serum protein electrophoresis indicates the presence of a monoclonal protein. Waldenström macroglobulinemia, Hodgkin lymphoma, and chronic lymphocytic leukemia do not typically present with the classic tetrad of findings seen in multiple myeloma.
Question 3 of 5
A patient presents with sudden onset of weakness and numbness on one side of the body, along with difficulty speaking and understanding speech. Imaging reveals an acute infarction involving the left middle cerebral artery territory. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient is presenting with sudden onset weakness and numbness on one side of the body, along with difficulty speaking and understanding speech, which are typical symptoms of a stroke. Imaging revealing an acute infarction involving the left middle cerebral artery territory is consistent with an ischemic stroke. Ischemic stroke occurs when there is a blockage in a blood vessel supplying blood to the brain, leading to a lack of oxygen and nutrients to the affected area, resulting in neurological deficits. This is in contrast to an intracerebral hemorrhage, which is caused by bleeding into the brain tissue, or a subarachnoid hemorrhage, which involves bleeding into the space surrounding the brain. A transient ischemic attack (TIA) is a temporary episode of neurological dysfunction caused by a brief blockage of blood flow to a part of the brain, usually resolving within 24 hours. In this case, the presentation and imaging findings are most
Question 4 of 5
A patient presents with sudden-onset severe headache, altered mental status, and focal neurological deficits. Imaging reveals a hemorrhagic lesion within the subarachnoid space. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A subarachnoid hemorrhage is characterized by bleeding within the subarachnoid space, the area between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater surrounding the brain. Patients typically present with a sudden-onset severe headache, altered mental status, and focal neurological deficits due to the mass effect of the blood in the subarachnoid space. Imaging, such as a CT scan, can confirm the presence of the hemorrhagic lesion. Ischemic stroke results from a blockage in the blood vessels supplying the brain, leading to tissue infarction and neurological deficits. Subdural hematoma is a collection of blood between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater, commonly seen following head trauma. Intracerebral hemorrhage involves bleeding within the brain tissue itself, often leading to focal neurological deficits.
Question 5 of 5
A patient presents with sudden-onset unilateral headache, along with ipsilateral ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The presentation described in the question – sudden-onset unilateral headache along with ipsilateral ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis – is characteristic of Horner syndrome. Horner syndrome is caused by disruption of the sympathetic nerve pathway and can occur in trigeminal neuralgia. Trigeminal neuralgia is a painful condition affecting the trigeminal nerve commonly characterized by sudden and severe facial pain that can be triggered by various stimuli. The involvement of the sympathetic pathway in trigeminal neuralgia can lead to Horner syndrome symptoms such as ptosis (drooping eyelid), miosis (constricted pupil), and anhidrosis (lack of sweating) on the affected side of the face. Cluster headaches usually involve severe unilateral pain around the eye, but they do not typically present with Horner syndrome symptoms. Migraine and tension-type headaches also do not typically present with Horner syndrome symptoms.