ATI RN
Fundamentals of Nursing Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following IV solutions is hypertonic?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 5% dextrose in 0.9% NaCl. This solution is hypertonic because it has a higher osmolarity compared to the other choices. The presence of dextrose and NaCl in this solution increases its solute concentration, causing water to move out of the cells by osmosis. Normal saline (A) and 0.45% NaCl (B) are isotonic solutions, meaning they have the same osmolarity as body fluids. 0.225% NaCl (D) is a hypotonic solution with lower osmolarity than body fluids.
Question 2 of 9
Mrs. Tan was prescribed with nitroglycerin. Nurse Amalia teaches her about the common side effect of the drug which includes:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: throbbing headache. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that relaxes blood vessels, leading to increased blood flow and reduced workload on the heart. One common side effect of nitroglycerin is a throbbing headache due to the dilation of blood vessels in the brain. This side effect is expected and usually diminishes with continued use. Explanation of other choices: A: High blood pressure - Nitroglycerin actually helps lower blood pressure by dilating blood vessels. B: GIT irritation - This is not a common side effect of nitroglycerin, as it primarily affects the cardiovascular system. C: Shortness of breathing - This is not a typical side effect of nitroglycerin, as it does not directly affect respiratory function.
Question 3 of 9
Why must a nurse measure the intake and output and recommend a daily fluid intake of approximately 3000 to 4000 mL for a client with pyelonephritis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: Measuring intake and output and recommending increased fluid intake for a client with pyelonephritis is crucial to help flush out infectious microorganisms from the urinary tract. By increasing fluid intake, the client will urinate more frequently, aiding in the removal of bacteria causing the infection. This helps in reducing the bacterial load in the urinary tract and promoting faster recovery. Monitoring intake and output also helps ensure the client is adequately hydrated. Summary of Other Choices: A: Monitoring intake and output is more about assessing hydration status and kidney function rather than the response to therapy. C: Intake and output measurement does not directly determine the location of discomfort in pyelonephritis. D: Monitoring intake and output is not primarily for detecting changes but for ensuring proper fluid balance and aiding in infection clearance.
Question 4 of 9
The physician prescribes didanosone (ddl [Videx]), 200mg PO every 12 hours, for a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) who is intolerant to zidovudine (azidothymidine ,AZT [Retrovir]). Which condition in the client’s history warrants cautious of this drug?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Peripheral neuropathy. Didanosine (ddl) can cause peripheral neuropathy as a side effect, which can exacerbate existing neuropathy. The client's history of peripheral neuropathy warrants caution with this drug to prevent further nerve damage. Incorrect choices: B: Hypertension - Didanosine is not contraindicated in hypertension. C: Diabetes mellitus - While monitoring blood sugar levels is important, didanosine does not directly affect diabetes. D: Asthma - Didanosine does not have a significant impact on asthma. In summary, the client's pre-existing peripheral neuropathy makes it important to exercise caution with didanosine to avoid worsening this condition.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following responses indicates sympathetic nervous system function?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because tachycardia (increased heart rate) and dilated pupils are classic responses of the sympathetic nervous system activation. Sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the fight or flight response, leading to increased heart rate and dilated pupils to prepare the body for quick action. Choice B is incorrect because hypoglycemia and headache are not specific to sympathetic nervous system function. Choice C is incorrect because increased peristalsis and abdominal cramping are more indicative of parasympathetic nervous system activity. Choice D is incorrect because pupil constriction and bronchoconstriction are actions of the parasympathetic nervous system, responsible for rest and digest functions.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a patient. Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for the development of hypertension? i.Race iv.Sedentary lifestyle ii.High cholesterol v.Age iii.Cigarette smoking
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 2, 3, and 4. High cholesterol, cigarette smoking, and a sedentary lifestyle are modifiable risk factors for developing hypertension. High cholesterol can lead to atherosclerosis, increasing blood pressure. Smoking can constrict blood vessels, raising blood pressure. Sedentary lifestyle can lead to obesity and overall poor cardiovascular health, contributing to hypertension. Race and age are non-modifiable risk factors. Choice A is incorrect because it includes race, a non-modifiable factor. Choice B is incorrect because it includes age, which is also non-modifiable. Choice D is incorrect because it includes all factors, including non-modifiable ones.
Question 7 of 9
What are the essential nursing actions that should be taken for a client with immune system disorder? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: The correct answer is missing from the choices provided. However, for a client with an immune system disorder, essential nursing actions include: E: Educate the client on the importance of maintaining a healthy lifestyle, avoiding exposure to infections, and adhering to prescribed medications. This is crucial for managing the immune system disorder effectively. Incorrect choices: A: Following agency guidelines is important but doesn't specifically address the client's immune system disorder. B: Reviewing drug references may be necessary but is not a priority in managing the immune system disorder. C: Advising the client on modifying the home environment is not directly related to managing the immune system disorder. D: Monitoring the client for depression is important but not specific to addressing the immune system disorder.
Question 8 of 9
Which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority for a client with hyperparathyroidism?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Risk for impaired skin integrity related to edema, skin fragility, and poor wound healing. This nursing diagnosis takes highest priority for a client with hyperparathyroidism because the client is at risk for skin breakdown due to edema, skin fragility, and poor wound healing caused by the condition. Skin integrity is crucial for preventing infection and promoting overall health. Choice A is incorrect because hyperparathyroidism is not related to thyroid hormone excess, but rather to parathyroid hormone excess. Choice C is incorrect because body image disturbance is not the highest priority compared to the risk of skin breakdown. Choice D is incorrect because hyperparathyroidism typically leads to hypercalcemia and not imbalanced nutrition related to thyroid hormone excess.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client with bronchogenic carcinoma. Which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ineffective airway clearance related to obstruction by a tumor or secretions. This takes highest priority as compromised airway can lead to respiratory distress and potential respiratory failure. Maintaining clear airways is essential for oxygenation and ventilation. Choices A, C, and D are important but do not pose immediate life-threatening risks compared to compromised airway. Disturbed body image, anxiety, and imbalanced nutrition can be addressed once the airway clearance is stabilized.