Which of the following is usually the first symptom of a cataract that the nurse would expect a patient to report during assessment?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Blurring of vision. This is typically the first symptom of a cataract because the clouding of the lens causes light to scatter, leading to blurred vision. Dry eyes (A) and eye pain (C) are not typically associated with cataracts. Loss of peripheral vision (D) is more commonly seen in conditions like glaucoma. In summary, blurring of vision is the hallmark symptom of cataracts due to lens clouding, distinguishing it from other eye conditions.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Health behavior. Evaluating the patient's demonstration of self-injection assesses their ability to perform a specific health-related action. This choice focuses on the patient's actions and behaviors related to their health, aligning with the scenario provided. Choice A: Health status is incorrect because it refers to the patient's current physical condition, not their ability to perform a specific health action. Choice C: Psychological self-control is incorrect as it pertains to the patient's ability to regulate their emotions and impulses, not their ability to self-administer injections. Choice D: Health service utilization is incorrect as it relates to the frequency and pattern of healthcare services used by the patient, not their ability to perform a specific health behavior.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Painful and frequent urination. Cloudy penile discharge is a common symptom of urethritis, which is inflammation of the urethra. Painful and frequent urination are classic symptoms of urethritis due to irritation and inflammation of the urinary tract. Throat or rectal infection (choice A) are not typically associated with urethritis. Chancres or vesicles on the genitals (choice B) are more indicative of sexually transmitted infections like syphilis or herpes. Oliguria and flank pain (choice D) are more suggestive of kidney or urinary tract issues rather than urethritis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: The nurse should explain that bladder irrigation is necessary to prevent blood clots from occluding the catheter after a TURP procedure. Step 2: Without irrigation, blood clots could block the catheter, leading to urinary retention and potential complications. Step 3: This explanation addresses the patient's concern about increased pain and highlights the importance of the irrigation in maintaining proper urine flow. Step 4: Choice A is incorrect because the primary purpose of irrigation is not to stop bleeding but to prevent clot formation. Choice B is incorrect because the irrigation is not for administering antibiotics. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the issue of clot formation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Include potassium-rich foods. Diuretics can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Including potassium-rich foods helps prevent this deficiency. Choice B is incorrect because fruits and fruit juices are often good sources of potassium. Choice C is incorrect as protein-rich foods do not specifically address potassium needs. Choice D is incorrect as dairy products are also good sources of potassium. Therefore, recommending potassium-rich foods is essential to prevent hypokalemia in clients taking diuretics.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 11mEq/L. In renal failure, the kidneys are unable to excrete excess magnesium, leading to hypermagnesemia. The patient's symptoms of stomach distress and ingesting antacids suggest magnesium intake. A Mg level of 11mEq/L aligns with symptoms like flushed face and weakness. Choices B, C, and D are too low for hypermagnesemia symptoms and would not explain the patient's presentation.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Use the smallest needle possible for injections. This is important for a client with thrombocytopenia because they have a low platelet count, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Using a small needle minimizes the risk of causing bleeding or bruising during injections. Limiting family visits (choice A) is not directly related to protecting the client from bleeding. Encouraging wheelchair use (choice B) is not specifically relevant to protecting the client with thrombocytopenia. Maintaining accurate fluid intake and output records (choice D) is important but not directly related to preventing bleeding in a client with thrombocytopenia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Maintain strict records of intake and output. This is the best way to assess fluid balance in a burn patient because it provides quantitative data on fluid intake and output, helping to monitor for fluid imbalance. Monitoring skin turgor (B) is unreliable in burn patients due to skin damage. Weighing the client daily (C) may not accurately reflect fluid balance changes. Checking for edema (D) is not specific to assessing fluid balance in burn patients. Maintaining intake and output records allows for precise monitoring and early detection of fluid shifts, making it the most appropriate choice.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Use a low-pitched voice. This is because elderly individuals may have age-related hearing loss, making it difficult for them to hear higher frequencies. Using a low-pitched voice can help ensure that the client can hear and understand the nurse clearly. A: Leaning and shouting at the ear of the client may come across as aggressive and disrespectful. C: Opening the mouth wide while talking is not necessary and may be seen as patronizing. D: Using a medium-pitched voice may still be too difficult for the elderly client to hear clearly due to age-related hearing loss.