Which of the following is usually the first symptom of a cataract that the nurse would expect a patient to report during assessment?

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Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which of the following is usually the first symptom of a cataract that the nurse would expect a patient to report during assessment?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Blurring of vision. This is typically the first symptom of a cataract because the clouding of the lens causes light to scatter, leading to blurred vision. Dry eyes (A) and eye pain (C) are not typically associated with cataracts. Loss of peripheral vision (D) is more commonly seen in conditions like glaucoma. In summary, blurring of vision is the hallmark symptom of cataracts due to lens clouding, distinguishing it from other eye conditions.

Question 2 of 9

A patient verbalizes a low pain level of 2 out of 10 but exhibits extreme facial grimacing while moving around in bed. What is the nurse’s initial action in response to these observations?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ask the patient about the facial grimacing with movement. This is the initial action because the discrepancy between the patient's verbal pain level and non-verbal cues needs clarification. By directly asking the patient about the facial grimacing, the nurse can gather more information to assess the actual pain level accurately. This step ensures a comprehensive understanding of the patient's pain experience and guides further interventions. Incorrect choices: A: Proceed to the next patient’s room to make rounds - This choice neglects the need to address the discrepancy in the patient's pain assessment. B: Determine the patient does not want any pain medicine - Assuming the patient's preference without further assessment can lead to inadequate pain management. D: Administer the pain medication ordered for moderate to severe pain - Without clarifying the reason behind the facial grimacing, administering pain medication may not be appropriate and could result in unnecessary medication use.

Question 3 of 9

Which of the following is usually the first symptom of a cataract that the nurse would expect a patient to report during assessment?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Blurring of vision. This is typically the first symptom of a cataract because the clouding of the lens causes light to scatter, leading to blurred vision. Dry eyes (A) and eye pain (C) are not typically associated with cataracts. Loss of peripheral vision (D) is more commonly seen in conditions like glaucoma. In summary, blurring of vision is the hallmark symptom of cataracts due to lens clouding, distinguishing it from other eye conditions.

Question 4 of 9

In a client who has human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection, CD4+ levels are measured to determine the:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. CD4+ cells are a type of white blood cell crucial for immune function. 2. HIV targets and destroys CD4+ cells, leading to immune system damage. 3. Measuring CD4+ levels helps determine the extent of this damage. 4. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Summary: A: Presence of opportunistic infections - CD4+ levels indirectly affect susceptibility, but not measured for this purpose. C: Level of the viral load - Measured separately from CD4+ levels. D: Resistance to antigens - CD4+ levels do not directly indicate resistance.

Question 5 of 9

If a client with increased pressure (ICP) demonstrates decorticate posturing, the nurse will observe:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because decorticate posturing is characterized by flexion of both upper and lower extremities. This occurs due to damage to the cerebral hemispheres, resulting in abnormal muscle contractions. Choice B describes decerebrate posturing, which is associated with extension of elbows and knees. Choice C is incorrect as it describes abnormal posturing seen in other conditions. Choice D is also incorrect as it describes a different type of abnormal posturing.

Question 6 of 9

Which of the ff conditions are more likely to develop in a client who is relatively immobile for the rest of his or her life? Choose all that apply

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bladder infection. Immobility can lead to urinary stasis, causing bacteria to multiply in the bladder, leading to a higher risk of bladder infections. B: Constipation can also occur due to immobility, but it is not directly related to the urinary system. C: Calculus formation is more related to factors like diet and hydration, not immobility. D: Bladder inflammation can be a result of infection but is not as directly linked to immobility as bladder infections.

Question 7 of 9

A charge nurse is evaluating a new nurse’s plan of care. Which finding will cause the charge nurse to follow up? Assigning a documented nursing diagnosis of Risk for infection for a patient on

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Developing nursing diagnoses before completing the database. This is incorrect because developing nursing diagnoses should be based on a comprehensive assessment and analysis of the patient's data. By developing nursing diagnoses before completing the database, the new nurse may overlook important information that could impact the accuracy of the diagnosis and subsequent care plan. Choice A (intravenous antibiotics) is incorrect because assigning a nursing diagnosis of Risk for infection for a patient on IV antibiotics is a common and appropriate practice given the increased risk of infection associated with invasive procedures. Choice B (Completing an interview and physical examination before adding a nursing diagnosis) is incorrect because nursing diagnoses should be developed based on the data collected during the assessment process, which includes the interview and physical examination. It is not necessary to complete the entire assessment before assigning a nursing diagnosis. Choice D (Including cultural and religious preferences in the database) is incorrect because while it is important to consider cultural and religious preferences in care planning, this does not directly relate to the

Question 8 of 9

A baby is born temporarily immune to the diseases to which the mother is immune. The nurse understands that this is an example of which of the following types of immunity?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Naturally acquired passive immunity. This type of immunity occurs when antibodies are passed from mother to baby through the placenta or breast milk, providing temporary protection. The baby does not produce its antibodies, hence it is passive. Choice B, naturally acquired active immunity, involves the body producing its antibodies after exposure to a pathogen. Choice C, artificially acquired passive immunity, involves receiving preformed antibodies from an external source. Choice D, artificially acquired active immunity, involves the body producing antibodies in response to vaccination.

Question 9 of 9

A patient has cloudy penile discharge. For which additional symptoms of urethritis should the nurse assess?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Painful and frequent urination. Cloudy penile discharge is a common symptom of urethritis, which is inflammation of the urethra. Painful and frequent urination are classic symptoms of urethritis due to irritation and inflammation of the urinary tract. Throat or rectal infection (choice A) are not typically associated with urethritis. Chancres or vesicles on the genitals (choice B) are more indicative of sexually transmitted infections like syphilis or herpes. Oliguria and flank pain (choice D) are more suggestive of kidney or urinary tract issues rather than urethritis.

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