ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Study Guide PDF Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following is used to treat migraine headaches?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Beta blockers are commonly used in the treatment of migraine headaches. These medications work by blocking the action of certain chemicals that cause blood vessels to dilate. By helping to prevent blood vessel dilation and constriction, beta blockers can help reduce the frequency and severity of migraine attacks. Additionally, beta blockers are thought to interfere with the transmission of pain signals in the brain.
Question 2 of 5
A 42-year-old woman with a 1-year history of rheumatoid arthritis comes to see you complaining of worsening symptoms. She has been taking leflunomide. You know that IL-1 and TNF-α are two key cytokines involved in the negative sequelae of rheumatoid arthritis. You decide to give her anakinra to interfere with IL-1 signaling. Which of the following is the most common side effect of anakinra administration?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Anakinra, an IL-1 antagonist, commonly causes injection site reactions , due to subcutaneous delivery. Blurry vision , diarrhea , headache , and nausea (E) are less frequent. This local irritation is expected in RA treatment escalation.
Question 3 of 5
While assessing a patient who is receiving intravenous digitalis, the nurse recognizes that the drug has a negative chronotropic effect. How would this drug effect be evident in the patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Digitalis is a medication commonly used to treat heart failure and certain cardiac arrhythmias. It works by increasing the force of heart contractions and slowing down the heart rate. Digitalis has a negative chronotropic effect, which means it decreases the heart rate by affecting the electrical conduction system of the heart. When a patient is receiving intravenous digitalis, a decreased heart rate would be evident as a result of this pharmacological action. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Decreased heart rate.
Question 4 of 5
A 31-year-old male patient has been prescribed propranolol to reduce and prevent angina. What will the nurse assess this patient for related to the medication? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Adverse effects of propranolol that the nurse would assess for include allergic reaction, bradycardia, heart failure, cardiac arrhythmias, cerebrovascular accident, pulmonary edema, gastric pain, flatulence, impotence, decreased exercise tolerance, and bronchospasm. The nurse should monitor for these adverse effects and intervene as needed to ensure patient safety.
Question 5 of 5
A mother brings her 4-year-old son to the emergency department after discovering him eating her iron supplement. Which of the following should be administered to chelate the excess iron in his body?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Iron overdose in a child requires a specific chelator. Deferoxamine binds ferric iron, forming ferrioxamine, excreted renally. EDTA chelates calcium and lead, not iron-specific. Dimercaprol treats heavy metals like arsenic, not iron. Penicillamine is for copper (Wilson's disease). Succimer (E) targets lead. Deferoxamine's high affinity for iron makes it standard for acute toxicity, preventing organ damage (e.g., liver, heart), critical in this pediatric emergency.