Which of the following is true regarding gonorrhea symptoms in men?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 10% of the infected men have no symptoms. This is true because gonorrhea can be asymptomatic in some individuals, leading to undiagnosed cases. Testicular pain and epididymal tenderness (choice A) are not typical symptoms of gonorrhea in men. Painful urination (choice B) may or may not be present. Purulent discharge (choice D) is a common symptom but not always present. Therefore, choice C is the most accurate statement regarding gonorrhea symptoms in men.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Reaction haemagglutination inhibition. This method is used to detect antibodies against influenza viruses by measuring the ability of the patient's serum to inhibit haemagglutination. This is a specific and sensitive technique for detecting influenza antibodies. A: Agglutination reaction is not specific for influenza viruses and may give false positives. B: Precipitation reaction in agar gel is not typically used for detecting influenza antibodies. D: Ration haemagglutination is not a standard method for detecting influenza antibodies.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. B-lymphocyte antigen receptors are made by proteins called immunoglobulins. These proteins are essential for recognizing and binding to specific antigens. They play a crucial role in the immune response. Choice B is incorrect because B-lymphocyte antigen receptors are indeed made by proteins. Choice C is incorrect as well because in this case, the correct answer is that the receptors are made by proteins. Choice D is also incorrect as the receptors are made by proteins.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because HIV can be transmitted from a mother to a child through multiple modes: during delivery through mixing of blood, during pregnancy through the placenta, and via breastmilk during lactation. Each mode presents a risk of transmission due to the presence of the virus in bodily fluids. Therefore, all of the above options are preferred modes of transmission for HIV from a mother to a child. Choices A, B, and C alone do not fully encompass all the possible routes of transmission, making them incorrect.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Vaginitis is a common bacterial infection in the female reproductive system. 2. Toxic shock syndrome can be caused by certain bacterial infections. 3. Endometritis is inflammation of the endometrium often due to bacterial infections. 4. Salpingitis is inflammation of the fallopian tubes, commonly caused by bacteria. Summary: - Choice B: Nephritis is a kidney infection, not related to female reproductive system infections. - Choice C: Nephritis and cystitis are not specific to the female reproductive system. - Choice D: Cystitis is a bladder infection, not typically considered part of female reproductive system infections.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. The presence of ulcers in animals suggests a parasitic infection. 2. Mosquitoes as carriers indicate a protozoan transmitted through insect bites. 3. Among the choices, Plasmodium falciparum causes malaria transmitted by mosquitoes. 4. Leishmania tropica major causes cutaneous leishmaniasis, not ulcers. 5. Balantidium coli causes intestinal infections, not skin ulcers. 6. Trypanosoma cruzi causes Chagas disease, not skin ulcers.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 10% of the infected men have no symptoms. This is true because gonorrhea can be asymptomatic in some individuals, leading to undiagnosed cases. Testicular pain and epididymal tenderness (choice A) are not typical symptoms of gonorrhea in men. Painful urination (choice B) may or may not be present. Purulent discharge (choice D) is a common symptom but not always present. Therefore, choice C is the most accurate statement regarding gonorrhea symptoms in men.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is D: Lymphocutaneous tularemia. The key clues include exposure to a dead animal, vesicle with serosanginous exudate, painless edema progressing to lymph node involvement, and fever. Tularemia is caused by Francisella tularensis, commonly acquired through contact with infected animals. The characteristic ulcer at the site of entry, lymphadenopathy, and systemic symptoms point towards tularemia. Cutaneous anthrax (A) presents with a painless ulcer and black eschar. Bubonic plague (B) typically presents with buboes (swollen lymph nodes) and fever. Carbuncle (C) is a deep skin infection typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Legionella pneumophila, Brucella melitensis can evade complete phagocytosis. 2. Mycobacterium tuberculosis inhibits phagosome-lysosome fusion. 3. Legionella pneumophila can prevent phagosome maturation. 4. Brucella melitensis can survive and replicate within phagocytes. 5. A + B + C together represent non-complete phagocytosis. Summary: - A, B, C individually cause incomplete phagocytosis. - Only when all three are present together (D) is non-complete phagocytosis observed.