Which of the following is true regarding breast self-examination?

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Physical Examination and Health Assessment 9th Edition Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which of the following is true regarding breast self-examination?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The statement that a high proportion of breast masses are detected by breast self-examination is true. Studies have shown that only a small percentage of breast cancers are actually detected by women themselves through self-examination. In fact, most breast cancers are detected through clinical breast exams and mammograms. Therefore, while it is still important for women to be breast aware and report any changes they notice to their healthcare provider, the practice of routine breast self-examinations is no longer universally recommended. Instead, the focus has shifted towards regular clinical breast exams and mammograms based on individual risk factors.

Question 2 of 5

Which of the following conditions involves a tight prepuce which, once retracted, cannot be returned?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Paraphimosis is a condition where the foreskin is retracted behind the glans penis and cannot be returned to its original position. This can lead to swelling and constriction of the penis, causing pain and potential damage to the tissue due to decreased blood flow. Phimosis (Choice A) refers to a tight prepuce that cannot be retracted over the glans penis. Balanitis (Choice C) is inflammation of the glans penis, often associated with poor hygiene or infections. Balanoposthitis (Choice D) refers to inflammation of both the glans penis and the foreskin.

Question 3 of 5

A 62-year-old smoker complains of "coughing up small amounts of blood," so you consider hemoptysis. Which of the following should you also consider?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Epistaxis, also known as a nosebleed, should be considered in a patient complaining of coughing up blood along with a history of smoking. Epistaxis can sometimes lead to blood trickling down the throat and being coughed up. It is important to consider this differential diagnosis, especially in patients with risk factors such as smoking. Intestinal bleeding (choice A) has a different presentation and cause compared to epistaxis. Hematoma of the nasal septum (choice B) is unlikely to cause coughing up blood. Bruising of the tongue (choice D) is also less likely to be the cause of hemoptysis in this case.

Question 4 of 5

What is responsible for the inspiratory splitting of S ?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Inspiratory splitting of S occurs due to the normal physiological delay in the closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves during inspiration. During inspiration, the negative intrathoracic pressure leads to increased venous return to the right side of the heart, causing a slight delay in the closure of the pulmonic valve. This results in the aortic valve closing first, followed by the closure of the pulmonic valve, leading to the splitting of S during inspiration.

Question 5 of 5

A 28-year-old musician comes to your clinic, complaining of a "spot" on his penis. He states his partner noticed it 2 days ago and it hasn't gone away. He says it doesn't hurt. He has had no burning with urination and no pain during intercourse. He has had several partners in the last year and uses condoms occasionally. His past medical history consists of nongonococcal urethritis from Chlamydia and prostatitis. He denies any surgeries. He smokes two packs of cigarettes a day, drinks a case of beer a week, and smokes marijuana and occasionally crack. He has injected IV drugs before but not in the last few years. He is single and currently unemployed. His mother has rheumatoid arthritis and he doesn't know anything about his father. On examination you see a young man appearing deconditioned but pleasant. His vital signs are unremarkable. On visualization of his penis there is a 6-mm red, oval ulcer with an indurated base just proximal to the corona. There is no prepuce because of neonatal circumcision. On palpation the ulcer is nontender. In the inguinal region there is nontender lymphadenopathy. What disorder of the penis is most likely the diagnosis?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The presentation described in the scenario is consistent with a syphilitic chancre, which is the primary lesion of syphilis. Syphilitic chancres are painless, indurated ulcers that occur at the site of initial infection with Treponema pallidum. These chancres are typically 0.5-2 cm in size, have a clean base, and are often accompanied by regional lymphadenopathy. The red oval ulcer with an indurated base in this patient, along with the absence of pain and presence of lymphadenopathy, is consistent with a syphilitic chancre.

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A 28-year-old musician comes to your clinic, complaining of a "spot" on his penis. He states his partner noticed it 2 days ago and it hasn't gone away. He says it doesn't hurt. He has had no burning with urination and no pain during intercourse. He has had several partners in the last year and uses condoms occasionally. His past medical history consists of nongonococcal urethritis from Chlamydia and prostatitis. He denies any surgeries. He smokes two packs of cigarettes a day, drinks a case of beer a week, and smokes marijuana and occasionally crack. He has injected IV drugs before but not in the last few years. He is single and currently unemployed. His mother has rheumatoid arthritis and he doesn't know anything about his father. On examination you see a young man appearing deconditioned but pleasant. His vital signs are unremarkable. On visualization of his penis there is a 6-mm red, oval ulcer with an indurated base just proximal to the corona. There is no prepuce because of neonatal circumcision. On palpation the ulcer is nontender. In the inguinal region there is nontender lymphadenopathy. What disorder of the penis is most likely the diagnosis?
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