ATI RN
Physical Assessment NCLEX Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following is true of jugular venous pressure (JVP) measurement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Jugular venous pressure (JVP) is measured as the vertical height of the blood column in centimeters above the sternal angle (Angle of Louis). To measure the JVP accurately, the patient should be positioned at a 30-45 degree angle (not 45-degree angle as in choice A). The value obtained by measuring the JVP in centimeters is then added to 5 cm, which represents the distance from the sternal angle to the right atrium. Therefore, the formula for calculating JVP is the vertical height of the blood column in cm + 5 cm. A JVP below 9 cm (not 9 cm or choice C) is generally considered normal, while a JVP above that level is considered elevated. It is important to measure the JVP correctly and interpret the findings in the context of the patient's
Question 2 of 5
A 49-year-old administrative assistant comes to your office for evaluation of dizziness. You elicit the information that the dizziness is a spinning sensation of sudden onset, worse with head position changes. The episodes last a few seconds and then go away, and they are accompanied by intense nausea. She has vomited one time. She denies tinnitus. You perform a physical examination of the head and neck and note that the patient's hearing is intact to Weber and Rinne and that there is nystagmus. Her gait is normal. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient's presentation of sudden-onset spinning sensation triggered by head position changes, accompanied by nausea and vomiting without tinnitus, is characteristic of benign positional vertigo (BPV). BPV is caused by displaced otoconia (calcium crystals) within the semicircular canals of the inner ear. These crystals disrupt the normal flow of fluid in the inner ear, leading to false signals being sent to the brain about head movement. This results in brief episodes of vertigo triggered by specific head positions.
Question 3 of 5
You are assessing a patient with joint pain and are trying to decide whether it is inflammatory or noninflammatory in nature. Which one of the following symptoms is consistent with an inflammatory process?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Nodules are a characteristic finding in an inflammatory joint condition such as rheumatoid arthritis. Nodules are small, firm lumps that can develop near the affected joint and are often indicative of an underlying inflammatory process. Tenderness, cool temperature, and ecchymosis can be seen in various musculoskeletal conditions, but nodules specifically point towards an inflammatory process in the joint.
Question 4 of 5
You are evaluating a 40-year-old banker for coronary heart disease risk factors. He has a history of hypertension, which is well-controlled on his current medications. He does not smoke; he does 45 minutes of aerobic exercise five times weekly. You are calculating his 10- year coronary heart disease risk. Which of the following conditions is considered to be a coronary heart disease risk equivalent?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is considered a coronary heart disease risk equivalent, meaning it confers a similar risk as having a history of coronary heart disease itself. Individuals with PAD have a significantly increased risk of cardiovascular events such as heart attack and stroke. Therefore, when assessing the 10-year coronary heart disease risk of the 40-year-old banker, having peripheral arterial disease would be a crucial factor to consider in addition to other risk factors like hypertension, exercise habits, and smoking history.
Question 5 of 5
His bowel sounds are decreased and he has rebound and involuntary guarding, one third of the way between the anterior superior iliac spine and the umbilicus in the right lower quadrant. His rectal, inguinal, prostate, penile, and testicular examinations are normal. What is the most likely cause of his pain?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presentation of decreased bowel sounds, rebound tenderness, and involuntary guarding in the right lower quadrant is highly suggestive of acute appendicitis. These signs indicate inflammation and potential perforation of the appendix, leading to the classic symptoms of appendicitis. The pain in this case is likely due to the inflammatory process involving the appendix. The absence of abnormal findings in the rectal, inguinal, prostate, penile, and testicular examinations further supports the diagnosis of acute appendicitis as the most likely cause of the patient's pain.
Similar Questions
Join Our Community Today!
Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for ATI-RN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your ATI-RN exam.
Subscribe for Unlimited Access