ATI RN
Physical Assessment NCLEX Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following is true of jugular venous pressure (JVP) measurement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Jugular venous pressure (JVP) is measured as the vertical height of the blood column in centimeters above the sternal angle (Angle of Louis). To measure the JVP accurately, the patient should be positioned at a 30-45 degree angle (not 45-degree angle as in choice A). The value obtained by measuring the JVP in centimeters is then added to 5 cm, which represents the distance from the sternal angle to the right atrium. Therefore, the formula for calculating JVP is the vertical height of the blood column in cm + 5 cm. A JVP below 9 cm (not 9 cm or choice C) is generally considered normal, while a JVP above that level is considered elevated. It is important to measure the JVP correctly and interpret the findings in the context of the patient's
Question 2 of 9
Is the following information subjective or objective? Mr. M. has shortness of breath that has persisted for the past 10 days; it is worse with activity and relieved by rest.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The information provided about Mr. M's shortness of breath being present for the past 10 days, worsening with activity, and relieved by rest are all objective findings. These are measurable and observable facts that can be documented by healthcare professionals through physical examination, assessment, and potentially diagnostic tests. Subjective information would involve Mr. M's personal feelings or descriptions of his symptoms, which are not included in the given information.
Question 3 of 9
Her abdominal examination reveals a gravid uterus but is otherwise unremarkable. On visualization of the anus there is a slight red, moist- appearing protrusion from the anus. As you have her bear down, the protrusion grows larger. On digital rectal examination you can feel an enlarged tender area on the posterior side. There is some blood on the glove after the examination. What disorder of the anus or rectum best fits this presentation?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The described clinical presentation is consistent with internal hemorrhoids. The typical symptoms of internal hemorrhoids include painless rectal bleeding, protrusion from the anus during straining, and a feeling of incomplete evacuation. In this case, the protrusion is observed to be red, moist, and enlarges with bearing down, all indicative of internal hemorrhoids. The enlarged tender area felt on digital rectal examination supports the diagnosis. Additionally, the presence of blood on the glove after the examination is also suggestive of internal hemorrhoids causing bleeding. Anal fissures typically present with sharp pain during defecation and may have visible tears in the anal mucosa. External hemorrhoids are usually more painful and can be felt as a lump around the anus. Anorectal fistulas have different signs and symptoms, including discharge of pus and recurrent infections.
Question 4 of 9
Jean has just given birth 6 months ago and is breast-feeding her child. She has not had a period since giving birth. What does this most likely represent?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Secondary amenorrhea refers to the absence of menstruation for 3-6 months in a woman who previously had regular menstrual cycles. In this case, Jean's lack of menstruation after giving birth and while breastfeeding her child for 6 months likely indicates secondary amenorrhea. This temporary suppression of ovulation and menstruation commonly occurs during breastfeeding due to the high levels of the hormone prolactin, which is responsible for milk production and can inhibit ovulation and menstruation. It is a natural phenomenon known as lactational amenorrhea. Once breastfeeding decreases or stops, menstruation usually resumes within a few months.
Question 5 of 9
You are examining a newborn and note that the right testicle is not in the scrotum. What should you do next?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When examining a newborn and noting that the right testicle is not in the scrotum, it is important to refer the newborn to a pediatric urologist for further evaluation and management. This condition could be a case of undescended testis (cryptorchidism), where the testicle fails to descend into the scrotum. Early intervention is crucial as the undescended testis may lead to complications such as infertility, testicular cancer, and inguinal hernia. Urology specialists can determine the best course of action to bring down the testis and ensure proper testicular development. Waiting or attempting manual descent without expertise could lead to complications, so it is best to involve a urologist for proper assessment and management.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following correlates with a sustained, high-amplitude PMI?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In hyperthyroidism, there is an increased metabolic rate and sympathetic activity. This can lead to increased cardiac output and left ventricular mass, causing the heart to work harder. As a result, the left ventricle becomes hypertrophied, leading to a sustained, high-amplitude Point of Maximum Impulse (PMI) that is displaced laterally and downward. This can be felt during a physical examination as a strong and forceful PMI. In contrast, conditions like anemia, fever, and hypertension are not typically associated with a sustained, high-amplitude PMI.
Question 7 of 9
A 68-year-old retired truck driver comes to your office for evaluation of swelling in his legs. He is a smoker and has been taking medications to control his hypertension for the past 25 years. You are concerned about his risk for peripheral vascular disease. Which of the following tests are appropriate to order to initially evaluate for this condition?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The ankle-brachial index (ABI) is the appropriate test to initially evaluate for peripheral vascular disease in this case. ABI is a simple, non-invasive test that compares the blood pressure in the arms to the blood pressure in the legs. A lower ABI value indicates a higher likelihood of peripheral arterial disease (PAD). Given the patient's presentation of leg swelling and risk factors like smoking and hypertension, ABI can help determine the presence and severity of PAD, guiding further management and treatment decisions.
Question 8 of 9
A 22-year-old advertising copywriter presents for evaluation of joint pain. The pain is new, located in the wrists and fingers bilaterally, with some subjective fever. The patient denies a rash; she also denies recent travel or camping activities. She has a family history significant for rheumatoid arthritis. Based on this information, which of the following pathologic processes would be the most correct?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most likely pathologic process based on the patient's symptoms and history would be an inflammatory process. The patient's joint pain, fever, and family history of rheumatoid arthritis suggest the possibility of an autoimmune inflammatory condition like rheumatoid arthritis. Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic inflammatory disorder that primarily affects the joints, causing pain, swelling, and stiffness. The bilateral involvement of the wrists and fingers along with a family history of rheumatoid arthritis make this diagnosis more likely than an infectious, hematologic, or traumatic process in this case.
Question 9 of 9
A 36-year-old security officer comes to your clinic, complaining of a painless mass in his scrotum. He found it 3 days ago during a testicular self-examination. He has had no burning with urination and no pain during sexual intercourse. He denies any weight loss, weight gain, fever, or night sweats. His past medical history is notable for high blood pressure. He is married and has three healthy children. He denies using illegal drugs, smokes two to three cigars a week, and drinks six to eight alcoholic beverages per week. His mother is in good health and his father had high blood pressure and coronary artery disease. On physical examination he appears anxious but in no pain. His vital signs are unremarkable. On visualization of his penis, he is circumcised and has no lesions. His inguinal region has no lymphadenopathy. Palpation of his scrotum shows a soft cystic-like lesion measuring 2 cm over his right testicle. There is no difficulty getting a gloved finger through either inguinal ring. With weight bearing there are no bulges. His prostate examination is unremarkable. What disorder of the scrotum does he most likely have?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient most likely has a hydrocele based on the presentation of a painless, soft cystic-like lesion measuring 2 cm over his right testicle. A hydrocele is a collection of fluid surrounding the testicle within the tunica vaginalis, resulting in a painless scrotal swelling. It is common and can occur at any age but is more common in older individuals. A key feature of a hydrocele is that the swelling is not reducible, meaning it cannot be pushed back into the abdomen. In this patient, there was no difficulty getting a gloved finger through either inguinal ring, ruling out a scrotal hernia. Testicular tumors typically present as painless testicular masses but are usually solid rather than cystic. Varicoceles are enlarged veins within the scrotum and have a characteristic "bag of worms" appearance on palpation, which is not described in this case.