ATI RN
Physical Assessment NCLEX Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following is true of jugular venous pressure (JVP) measurement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Jugular venous pressure (JVP) is measured as the vertical height of the blood column in centimeters above the sternal angle (Angle of Louis). To measure the JVP accurately, the patient should be positioned at a 30-45 degree angle (not 45-degree angle as in choice A). The value obtained by measuring the JVP in centimeters is then added to 5 cm, which represents the distance from the sternal angle to the right atrium. Therefore, the formula for calculating JVP is the vertical height of the blood column in cm + 5 cm. A JVP below 9 cm (not 9 cm or choice C) is generally considered normal, while a JVP above that level is considered elevated. It is important to measure the JVP correctly and interpret the findings in the context of the patient's
Question 2 of 9
You are evaluating a 40-year-old banker for coronary heart disease risk factors. He has a history of hypertension, which is well-controlled on his current medications. He does not smoke; he does 45 minutes of aerobic exercise five times weekly. You are calculating his 10- year coronary heart disease risk. Which of the following conditions is considered to be a coronary heart disease risk equivalent?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is considered a coronary heart disease risk equivalent, meaning it confers a similar risk as having a history of coronary heart disease itself. Individuals with PAD have a significantly increased risk of cardiovascular events such as heart attack and stroke. Therefore, when assessing the 10-year coronary heart disease risk of the 40-year-old banker, having peripheral arterial disease would be a crucial factor to consider in addition to other risk factors like hypertension, exercise habits, and smoking history.
Question 3 of 9
Her abdominal examination reveals a gravid uterus but is otherwise unremarkable. On visualization of the anus there is a slight red, moist- appearing protrusion from the anus. As you have her bear down, the protrusion grows larger. On digital rectal examination you can feel an enlarged tender area on the posterior side. There is some blood on the glove after the examination. What disorder of the anus or rectum best fits this presentation?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The described clinical presentation is consistent with internal hemorrhoids. The typical symptoms of internal hemorrhoids include painless rectal bleeding, protrusion from the anus during straining, and a feeling of incomplete evacuation. In this case, the protrusion is observed to be red, moist, and enlarges with bearing down, all indicative of internal hemorrhoids. The enlarged tender area felt on digital rectal examination supports the diagnosis. Additionally, the presence of blood on the glove after the examination is also suggestive of internal hemorrhoids causing bleeding. Anal fissures typically present with sharp pain during defecation and may have visible tears in the anal mucosa. External hemorrhoids are usually more painful and can be felt as a lump around the anus. Anorectal fistulas have different signs and symptoms, including discharge of pus and recurrent infections.
Question 4 of 9
You are examining an unconscious patient from another region and notice Beau's lines, a transverse groove across all of her nails, about 1 cm from the proximal nail fold. What would you do next?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Beau's lines are transverse grooves or depressions in the nails that occur from a temporary disruption in nail growth. These lines can be caused by a variety of factors, including systemic diseases, medication use, trauma, or environmental stressors. However, one of the most common causes of Beau's lines is a significant physiological stress such as a severe illness or major surgery that occurred about 3 months prior to the appearance of the lines. Therefore, looking for information from family and records regarding any problems that occurred around 3 months ago is the most appropriate next step to understand the underlying cause of Beau's lines in this unconscious patient. This information can provide crucial insights into the patient's medical history and potential underlying health issues that may need to be addressed.
Question 5 of 9
When should a woman conduct breast self-examination with respect to her menses?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: It is recommended for women to conduct breast self-examination immediately prior to their menses. This is because the breasts are less likely to be tender, lumpy, or swollen during this time of the menstrual cycle, making it easier to detect any abnormalities such as lumps or changes in the breast tissue. Conducting breast self-examination around this time each month can help women become familiar with the normal look and feel of their breasts, making it easier to detect any changes that may indicate a potential issue.
Question 6 of 9
A young man is concerned about a hard mass he has just noticed in the midline of his palate. On examination, it is indeed hard and in the midline. There are no mucosal abnormalities associated with this lesion. He is experiencing no other symptoms. What will you tell him is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A hard mass in the midline of the palate with no associated mucosal abnormalities is most likely a torus palatinus. Torus palatinus is a benign bony growth that often occurs in the midline of the hard palate. It is typically asymptomatic and does not require treatment unless it causes issues with function or hygiene. Leukoplakia is a clinical term used to describe a white patch in the mouth that cannot be scrapped off and is associated with a risk of cancer. Thrush (candidiasis) presents as white, creamy patches in the mouth that can be scrapped off and is caused by a yeast infection. Kaposi's sarcoma presents as red or purple patches or nodules in the mouth and is associated with immunocompromised individuals, like those with HIV/AIDS.
Question 7 of 9
Cody is a teenager with a history of leukemia and an enlarged spleen. Today he presents with fairly significant left upper quadrant pain. On examination of this area a rough grating noise is heard. What is this sound?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A splenic rub is a friction rub heard on auscultation in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen, typically in patients with an enlarged spleen. The rough grating noise heard during examination is due to the rubbing together of the inflamed or irritated peritoneal surfaces surrounding the spleen. This is a classic finding in patients with splenomegaly and is often associated with left upper quadrant pain. Bowel noises (borborygmi) are typically heard in the abdomen and are softer, gurgling, or rumbling in nature. Vascular noises are related to blood flow and are typically not associated with such sounds in the abdomen.
Question 8 of 9
You are examining a newborn and note that the right testicle is not in the scrotum. What should you do next?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When examining a newborn and noting that the right testicle is not in the scrotum, it is important to refer the newborn to a pediatric urologist for further evaluation and management. This condition could be a case of undescended testis (cryptorchidism), where the testicle fails to descend into the scrotum. Early intervention is crucial as the undescended testis may lead to complications such as infertility, testicular cancer, and inguinal hernia. Urology specialists can determine the best course of action to bring down the testis and ensure proper testicular development. Waiting or attempting manual descent without expertise could lead to complications, so it is best to involve a urologist for proper assessment and management.
Question 9 of 9
The ankle-brachial index (ABI) is calculated by dividing the systolic BP at the dorsalis pedis by the systolic BP at the brachial artery. Which of the following values would be consistent with mild peripheral arterial disease?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An ABI value less than 0.9 is indicative of mild peripheral arterial disease (PAD). In this case, an ABI of 0.85 falls below the 0.9 threshold, suggesting diminished blood flow to the lower extremities due to PAD. An ABI of 1.1 (Choice A) is actually elevated and not indicative of PAD. Values of 0.65 (Choice C) and 0.35 (Choice D) are significantly lower and would be consistent with moderate to severe PAD, rather than mild.