Which of the following is true of a grade 4-intensity murmur?

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Jarvis Physical Examination and Health Assessment Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which of the following is true of a grade 4-intensity murmur?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: It is moderately loud. A grade 4-intensity murmur indicates a moderately loud murmur that is readily heard with the stethoscope lightly on the chest. This intensity suggests a significant level of turbulence in blood flow, typically indicating a more pronounced cardiac abnormality. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: B: It can be heard with the stethoscope off the chest - This is incorrect because a murmur would not be audible without the stethoscope. C: It can be heard with the stethoscope partially off the chest - This is incorrect as a murmur would still require direct contact with the chest for auscultation. D: It is associated with a "thrill" - This is incorrect as a thrill is a palpable vibration indicating turbulent blood flow and is not directly related to murmur intensity.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the following is true of the HPV vaccine?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: It can protect against anogenital lesions. The HPV vaccine can protect against several types of HPV that are known to cause anogenital warts and lesions. This is based on scientific evidence from clinical trials. A: Ideally it should be administered within 3 years of first intercourse - This statement is not accurate. The HPV vaccine is recommended for both males and females between the ages of 9 and 26, regardless of sexual activity. B: It covers against almost every HPV type - This statement is incorrect. While the HPV vaccine covers the most common high-risk HPV types that cause cervical cancer, it does not cover against every HPV type. C: It can be used as adjuvant therapy in cervical cancer - This statement is incorrect. The HPV vaccine is primarily used as a preventive measure to reduce the risk of HPV infection and related health issues, not as a treatment for existing cervical cancer.

Question 3 of 9

A 65-year-old has a history of one kidney with early renal insufficiency. He is diagnosed with pneumonia and will require:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lower dose of antibiotics. The rationale is that the patient has early renal insufficiency, which means the kidney may have difficulty clearing medications from the body. Therefore, a lower dose of antibiotics is needed to prevent potential drug toxicity. A shorter course of antibiotics (choice A) may not be effective in treating pneumonia adequately. A longer course of antibiotics (choice B) may increase the risk of drug accumulation in the body. A higher dose of antibiotics (choice D) can lead to increased toxicity in a patient with renal insufficiency. Thus, the most appropriate option is to reduce the dose to ensure safe and effective treatment.

Question 4 of 9

A 19-year-old-college student presents to the emergency room with fever, headache, and neck pain/stiffness. She is concerned about the possibility of meningococcal meningitis. Several of her dorm mates have been vaccinated, but she hasn't been. Which of the following physical examination descriptions is most consistent with meningitis?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Meningitis typically presents with neck stiffness due to meningeal irritation. In choice C, the patient has a tender neck to palpation and is unable to perform range of motion, indicating meningeal inflammation. Choices A, B, and D all describe a normal head and fundi exam, which is not consistent with meningitis. Choice B mentions muscle spasm and limited range of motion to the right, but this is more suggestive of a musculoskeletal issue rather than meningitis. Choice D describes a normal neck exam, which is not in line with the presentation of meningitis.

Question 5 of 9

Symptoms associated with small bowel obstruction usually include:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vomiting and pain. Small bowel obstruction typically leads to vomiting due to the blockage preventing food from passing through. Pain occurs as the intestine tries to push against the obstruction. Nausea and diarrhea (choice A) are more common in large bowel obstructions. Hematemesis and bloody stool (choice C) suggest bleeding in the upper gastrointestinal tract. Indigestion and anorexia (choice D) are not specific to small bowel obstruction. Therefore, the combination of vomiting and pain is indicative of small bowel obstruction.

Question 6 of 9

A patient with a history of chronic smoking presents with a persistent cough and weight loss. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lung cancer. The patient's symptoms of chronic smoking, persistent cough, and weight loss are concerning for malignancy. Lung cancer is a common consequence of long-term smoking and can present with these symptoms. Chronic bronchitis (A) typically presents with cough and mucus production but not necessarily weight loss. Emphysema (C) is characterized by shortness of breath and is less likely to cause weight loss. Asthma (D) usually presents with wheezing and shortness of breath, not typically weight loss.

Question 7 of 9

A 78-year-old male is being treated for hypertension. The nurse knows that the most appropriate first-line therapy in older adults is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diuretics. In older adults, diuretics are considered the most appropriate first-line therapy for hypertension due to their effectiveness in reducing blood pressure and preventing complications such as heart failure. Diuretics are well-tolerated, have a long history of use, and are cost-effective. They are especially beneficial in older adults with volume overload or fluid retention. Beta-blockers (B) may be less effective in older adults and can have more side effects. ACE inhibitors (C) are commonly used but may pose risks of hyperkalemia and renal dysfunction in older adults. Calcium channel blockers (D) are effective but may increase the risk of falls and fractures in older adults.

Question 8 of 9

What is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in adults?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in adults due to its prevalence and ability to cause infections in the lungs. It accounts for a significant portion of pneumonia cases worldwide. Staphylococcus aureus (A) is more commonly associated with healthcare-associated pneumonia. Mycoplasma pneumoniae (C) typically causes atypical pneumonia, which tends to be milder and more common in younger individuals. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (D) is more commonly seen in individuals with underlying health conditions or compromised immune systems, rather than in healthy adults with community-acquired pneumonia.

Question 9 of 9

Janeway lesions, petechiae, and Osler nodes are associated with:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why B is correct: Janeway lesions, petechiae, and Osler nodes are classic signs of infective endocarditis. Janeway lesions are painless erythematous macules on palms/soles, petechiae are small red/purple spots due to microemboli, and Osler nodes are tender subcutaneous nodules on fingers/toes. These findings indicate systemic embolization and immune complex deposition in infective endocarditis. Other choices are incorrect as they do not typically present with these specific dermatologic findings.

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