Which of the following is TRUE about Expiration?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the context of the respiratory cycle, expiration is indeed a passive process (Option A). This means that during normal breathing at rest, the exhalation phase does not require active muscle contraction. The correct answer is right because expiration primarily relies on the elastic recoil of the lungs and chest wall. As the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles relax, the lung volume decreases, pushing air out of the lungs. Option B is incorrect because the length of expiration is typically longer than inspiration. Option C is incorrect as stridor, a high-pitched noisy breathing sound, is typically associated with inspiration due to upper airway obstruction. Option D is incorrect as expiration, as mentioned, is primarily passive and does not require additional energy input for exhalation. Educationally, understanding the mechanics of respiration, including inspiration and expiration, is crucial for healthcare professionals to assess and manage respiratory conditions effectively. Knowing that expiration is a passive process helps in differentiating normal breathing patterns from abnormal ones and aids in the recognition of respiratory distress in patients. This knowledge is fundamental for nurses, respiratory therapists, and other healthcare providers caring for individuals with respiratory issues.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In advising a client taking Coumadin on dietary restrictions, it's crucial to emphasize avoiding foods high in Vitamin K, as it can counteract the anticoagulant effects of the medication. The correct answer, option A, includes spinach, green leafy vegetables, cabbage, and liver, all rich sources of Vitamin K. By consuming these foods in excess, the client can potentially decrease the effectiveness of Coumadin and increase the risk of blood clot formation. Options B, C, and D do not pose the same risk as they do not contain significant amounts of Vitamin K. Option B includes fish, which are healthy sources of protein and omega-3 fatty acids but do not impact Coumadin therapy. Option C lists butter, egg yolk, and breakfast cereals, which are not high in Vitamin K and do not interfere with Coumadin. Option D consists of foods like banana, yeast, wheat germ, and chicken, which are also not of concern in a Coumadin diet. Educationally, it's essential to explain to the client the rationale behind the dietary restrictions to ensure compliance and optimal therapeutic outcomes. By understanding the specific foods to avoid, the client can better manage their condition and medication regimen. Reinforcing the importance of consistency in their diet and medication regimen will help maintain appropriate anticoagulation levels and reduce the risk of complications. This education empowers the client to take an active role in their health management and promotes safer medication use.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the height of the feeding at 12 inches above the tube insertion point allows for a slow introduction of feeding, preventing complications such as aspiration or gastric distension. This height ensures a controlled flow rate by gravity, reducing the risk of overwhelming the digestive system. Option A is incorrect because notifying the doctor only when the residual is 50 ml or more may lead to delayed intervention in case of feeding intolerance or other issues. Option C is incorrect as placing the client in a supine position immediately after feeding can increase the risk of aspiration. Option D is incorrect as clamping the NGT before all water is instilled can cause air to enter the stomach, leading to discomfort and potential complications. In an educational context, understanding the correct technique for NGT feeding is crucial for nurses and healthcare providers to ensure safe and effective delivery of nutrition to patients. Proper knowledge and implementation of NGT feeding protocols can prevent complications and promote optimal patient outcomes.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: "The client's respiratory center is so accustomed to high CO2 and low blood O2 concentrations that oxygen therapy may eliminate his stimulus for breathing." This is because in patients with COPD, their respiratory drive is often maintained by hypoxia (low blood oxygen levels) rather than hypercapnia (high carbon dioxide levels). Administering high levels of oxygen can suppress this hypoxic drive, potentially leading to respiratory depression and worsening the patient's condition. Option A is incorrect because oxygen is not lost in the client's nostrils but is inhaled into the lungs. Option B is incorrect as it does not address the specific physiological response in COPD patients. Option C is incorrect as there is no evidence to suggest that increased oxygen levels will cause alveolar cells to burst in COPD patients. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind maintaining a relatively low concentration of oxygen in patients with COPD is crucial for nurses and healthcare providers to prevent potential adverse effects and complications. It underscores the importance of tailoring oxygen therapy to each patient's specific respiratory condition to optimize outcomes and ensure patient safety.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the context of oxygenation and airway management, it is crucial to understand the correct use of oral airways. Option B, stating that insertion of an oral airway can cause injury to the hard palate, is correct. When inserting an oral airway, if not done carefully or if the airway is too large, it can indeed cause trauma to the hard palate, potentially leading to bleeding and discomfort for the patient. Option A is incorrect because an oral airway is typically used for unconscious patients or those with an impaired gag reflex to help maintain an open airway. For conscious patients with an intact gag reflex, the use of an oral airway may induce gagging and discomfort. Option C is incorrect because the correct size of the oral airway is typically determined by measuring from the corner of the mouth to the angle of the jaw or the base of the earlobe, not the tip of the earlobe. Option D is incorrect as an oral airway is not used to secure an endotracheal tube. Endotracheal tubes are secured in place using specific devices such as tube holders or ties to prevent accidental dislodgement and ensure proper placement. Understanding the correct indications, sizing, and potential complications associated with oral airways is essential for healthcare professionals involved in airway management. Proper education and training on airway adjuncts like oral airways are crucial to ensure patient safety and effective airway management in various clinical settings.