ATI RN
Human Reproductive System Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following is the primary sign of breast cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse observes that the urinary meatus is located on the undersurface of the penis. How does the nurse document this finding?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypospadias. In hypospadias, the urinary meatus is located on the undersurface of the penis. This condition occurs due to abnormal development of the urethral opening. To document this finding, the nurse should use accurate terminology. A: Balanitis is inflammation of the glans penis and is not related to the location of the urinary meatus. B: Phimosis is the inability to retract the foreskin over the glans penis and is not related to the location of the urinary meatus. C: Epispadias is a rare condition where the urinary meatus is located on the upper side of the penis, opposite to hypospadias.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse examines a patient and finds a single, firm, painless open sore with indurated borders on the vulva. The nurse correlates this finding with which disorder?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Syphilis. A single, firm, painless open sore with indurated borders on the vulva is characteristic of the primary stage of syphilis, caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. This sore is known as a chancre and typically appears at the site of infection. It is painless due to the destruction of local sensory nerves by the bacteria. Syphilis can progress through different stages if left untreated. Choice A: HPV infection does not typically present with a single painless sore but rather with warty growths or lesions on the genital area. Choice B: Herpes infection usually presents with multiple painful blisters or sores, not a single painless sore. Choice C: Gonorrhea does not typically present as a painless sore but rather with symptoms like burning during urination, discharge, and pelvic pain.
Question 4 of 5
Which patients meet the criteria for Chlamydia screening?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the 22-year-old woman who is sexually active and uses barrier protection inconsistently is at higher risk for Chlamydia infection. Inconsistent use of barrier protection increases the likelihood of exposure to the infection. The other choices (A, B, D) do not specifically mention increased risk factors for Chlamydia. Choice A mentions consistent barrier protection, which lowers the risk. Choice B mentions having one partner, which may reduce the risk compared to multiple partners. Choice D mentions having multiple partners, which increases the risk, but it does not mention current risky behavior like inconsistent barrier protection.
Question 5 of 5
After scheduling a patient with a possible ovarian cyst for ultrasound, the nurse will teach the patient that she should
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: experience mild abdominal cramps after the procedure. This is because ultrasound imaging for ovarian cysts is non-invasive and does not involve the use of IV contrast or require the patient to drink fluids before the procedure. The patient may experience mild abdominal cramps due to the pressure applied during the ultrasound, but this is temporary and not a cause for concern. Discontinuing aspirin is not necessary for an ultrasound procedure.