Which of the following is the most suitable anti malarial drug for pregnant women?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Quinine and clindamycin. Quinine is recommended for pregnant women due to its safety profile in pregnancy. Clindamycin is often used in combination with quinine to treat malaria during pregnancy. A: Atovaquone and proguanil are not recommended for pregnant women due to limited safety data. B: Quinine and doxycycline should be avoided in pregnancy as doxycycline can harm the fetus. D: Primaquine is not recommended during pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus. In summary, the combination of quinine and clindamycin is the most suitable anti-malarial drug for pregnant women due to their safety profiles and efficacy in treating malaria without harming the fetus.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because iron absorption primarily occurs in the duodenum and upper jejunum of the small intestine. This is where iron is absorbed into the bloodstream and utilized by the body. Absorption in the large intestine, as stated in choice A, is incorrect. Intrinsic factor, mentioned in choice B, is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12, not iron. Ascorbic acid actually enhances iron absorption, so choice C is incorrect. Absorption in hereditary hemochromatosis, as in choice D, is increased due to a genetic mutation causing excessive iron absorption, not with oral iron supplements.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Absolute lymphocytes. In CLL, the most important diagnostic criterion is an absolute lymphocyte count of more than 5,000 cells per microliter in the peripheral blood. This is a key feature of CLL and distinguishes it from other conditions. Hypogammaglobulinemia (choice A) may occur in CLL but is not as specific for diagnosis. Male predominance (choice C) is a general characteristic of CLL but is not a diagnostic criterion. Presence of enlarged lymph nodes (choice D) is a common manifestation of CLL but not the most important criteria for diagnosis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because heparin binds to antithrombin III, enhancing its ability to inactivate thrombin. This prevents the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin, thereby inhibiting blood clot formation. Choice A is incorrect because vitamin K-dependent clotting factors are not directly affected by heparin. Choice B is incorrect because heparin does not prevent the activation of platelets, rather it affects the coagulation cascade. Choice C is incorrect as heparin does not directly prevent platelet aggregation, which is more related to antiplatelet agents like aspirin.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the Philadelphia chromosome is found in myeloid (not lymphoid) cells in Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML). This is due to a reciprocal translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, resulting in a shortened chromosome 22q, not chromosome 22 itself. Choice A is incorrect because the long arm of chromosome 22 is affected. Choice B is incorrect as Philadelphia chromosome-negative cases can have a favorable prognosis. Choice C is incorrect as the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome is diagnostic of CML.