Which of the following is the most numerous type of white blood cell (WBC)?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neutrophil. Neutrophils are the most numerous type of WBC, typically comprising 50-70% of total WBC count. They are key players in the body's immune response, phagocytizing pathogens. Basophils, eosinophils, and lymphocytes are less numerous than neutrophils. Basophils are involved in allergic reactions, eosinophils combat parasitic infections, and lymphocytes play a critical role in adaptive immunity. However, in terms of sheer numbers, neutrophils outnumber the other types of WBC.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Related to impaired balance. The rationale for this is that a cerebellar brain tumor can affect the client's coordination and balance due to its location in the brain responsible for fine motor movements. Impaired balance increases the risk for falls and injuries. Visual field deficits (choice A) may contribute to the risk of injury but not as directly as impaired balance. Difficulty swallowing (choice C) and psychomotor seizures (choice D) are not directly related to the client's risk for injury due to a cerebellar brain tumor.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Collaborative problem. In the given diagnostic statement, "Impaired physical mobility related to tibial fracture as evidenced by patient’s inability to ambulate," the nurse needs to revise the mention of collaborative problem. The collaborative problem is a health issue that requires the expertise of multiple healthcare providers, whereas the statement provided focuses on a nursing diagnosis related to physical mobility impairment. The etiology (cause), nursing diagnosis, and defining characteristic are all relevant to the nursing diagnostic statement and do not need revision. The collaborative problem aspect is not appropriate in this context as it does not fit the criteria for a collaborative problem.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Eye opening, verbal response, motor response. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) assesses the level of consciousness by evaluating these three factors. Eye opening assesses the patient's ability to open their eyes spontaneously or in response to stimuli. Verbal response evaluates the patient's ability to speak or respond to verbal stimuli. Motor response assesses the patient's motor function by testing responses to commands or painful stimuli. Choice A is incorrect because it includes "response to pain" instead of "verbal response." Choice B is incorrect because it includes "verbal response" instead of "eye opening." Choice D is incorrect because it includes "eye opening" instead of "verbal response." In summary, the GCS evaluates eye opening, verbal response, and motor response to determine the level of consciousness in patients.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because assessing the GI tract helps determine the client's readiness for feeding. Bowel sounds indicate gut motility, last BM assesses bowel function, and distention indicates possible issues. Option B is incorrect as it pertains more to neurological assessment. Option C is not a priority assessment before feeding. Option D is incorrect as formula should be warmed to room temperature before feeding to prevent GI upset.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: The scenario describes Toni minimizing her visual problems, planning advanced degrees, seeking full-time jobs, and wanting more children. Step 2: Choice B is correct because it recognizes Toni's behavior as a coping mechanism to deal with her illness. Step 3: Minimizing visual problems and focusing on future goals can be a way for Toni to maintain a positive outlook and cope with her challenges. Step 4: Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address Toni's behavior as a coping mechanism. Choice A mentions euphoria, which is not supported by the scenario. Choice C and D do not acknowledge Toni's coping mechanism but instead focus on different aspects like disease process and physical functioning.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: C: 0.25 mg is the correct daily dosage of Digoxin for adults with heart failure. This dosage is within the usual range of 0.125-0.25 mg. It helps improve heart function and manage heart failure symptoms. A: 0.005 mg is too low and ineffective. B: 0.025 mg is also too low for therapeutic effect. D: 2.5 mg is too high and may lead to toxicity in most adult patients.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pallor. Pallor, which refers to paleness of the skin, is an early sign of anemia due to decreased red blood cell levels. Anemia causes reduced oxygen delivery to tissues, leading to paleness. Palpitations (A) may occur in anemia but are not an early sign. Glossitis (C) and weight loss (D) are not typically early signs of anemia and are more commonly associated with other health conditions.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Evaluation. In the nursing process, evaluation involves determining if the patient's condition has improved and if the expected outcomes have been met. The nurse assesses the patient's progress, compares it to the expected outcomes set during planning, and determines the effectiveness of the interventions implemented. This step ensures that the care provided is meeting the patient's needs and helps in making any necessary adjustments to the care plan. Incorrect choices: A: Assessment - This step involves gathering information about the patient's condition and needs at the beginning of the nursing process. B: Planning - Involves setting goals and developing a plan of care based on the assessment data. C: Implementation - Involves carrying out the interventions outlined in the care plan to meet the patient's goals.