Which of the following is the most effective in the management of absence seizures?

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ATI Practice Exam Pharmacology The Hematologic System Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which of the following is the most effective in the management of absence seizures?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Absence seizures, brief lapses in consciousness, require specific antiepileptics. Carbamazepine, effective for focal seizures, can worsen absence seizures by enhancing sodium channel activity. Topiramate and clobazam have broader uses but limited efficacy here. Phenytoin suits tonic-clonic, not absence. Ethosuximide reduces T-type calcium currents in thalamic neurons, directly targeting absence seizure mechanisms, making it most effective. Its specificity ensures rapid control, critical for pediatric epilepsy management.

Question 2 of 5

A client has been using sildenafil (Viagra) for several months. Which client reports would the nurse interpret as an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Sildenafil (Viagra) commonly causes nasal congestion due to vasodilation affecting nasal blood vessels, a frequent adverse effect tied to its mechanism. Earache isn't a recognized side effect-sildenafil targets vascular smooth muscle, not auditory systems. Blurry vision occurs from PDE-6 inhibition in the retina, another known issue. Priapism, a sustained erection, is a rare but serious risk requiring urgent care. Nasal congestion stands out as a typical, manageable effect, reflecting sildenafil's systemic vasodilatory impact, distinct from less common visual or emergent issues, and aligns with patient reports needing monitoring.

Question 3 of 5

Following ingestion, a drug crosses a membrane from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. This is an example of

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Question 4 of 5

The patient has been treated by the same physician for 2 years and has had insomnia the entire time. Many different medications have been tried with limited success. What should be the nurse's primary assessment at this time?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Persistent insomnia despite meds suggests a primary disorder like sleep apnea-e.g., obstructed breathing disrupts sleep-needing assessment (e.g., EEG), not just med failure. Selling meds lacks evidence. Addiction or personality disorders don't explain resistance. Sleep apnea fits chronicity, per sleep science.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse teaches a class for college students about osteoporosis. What is the best information to include?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

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