ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following is the most common cause of hyperaldosteronism?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: An adrenal adenoma. Adrenal adenoma is the most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism, also known as Conn's syndrome. Adrenal adenomas are benign tumors that cause overproduction of aldosterone, leading to increased sodium retention and potassium excretion. This results in hypertension and hypokalemia. Excessive sodium intake (A) and deficient potassium intake (B) are not direct causes of hyperaldosteronism. A pituitary adenoma (C) is associated with other hormone imbalances, such as Cushing's syndrome or acromegaly, but not hyperaldosteronism.
Question 2 of 9
The patient is having difficulty coping with her new diagnosis of lymphoma. Which response by the nurse is most helpful?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it helps the patient explore her support system. By asking who she usually goes to when facing problems, the nurse encourages the patient to identify her sources of emotional support, which can help her cope with the new diagnosis. This response acknowledges the patient's need for support and fosters a therapeutic relationship. Explanation for incorrect choices: A: "Don't worry. You'll be okay." - This response dismisses the patient's feelings and offers false reassurance, which may not address her emotional needs. B: "The treatments you are receiving will make you feel better very soon." - While this statement provides information about treatment, it does not directly address the patient's difficulty in coping with the diagnosis. D: "Have you made end-of-life decisions?" - This response may be premature and could unnecessarily increase the patient's anxiety about her prognosis.
Question 3 of 9
A client is admitted for postoperative assessment and recovery after surgery for a kidney tumor. The nurse needs to assess for signs of urinary tract infection. Which of the ff measures can be used to help detect UTI?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor temperature every 4hrs. This is crucial in detecting signs of urinary tract infection as fever is a common symptom. Monitoring temperature regularly allows for early detection and appropriate intervention. A: Encouraging the client to breathe deeply and cough every 2hrs is a measure to prevent respiratory complications postoperatively, not related to UTI detection. C: Splinting the incision when repositioning the client is important for wound care, not for detecting UTI. D: Irrigating tubes as ordered is a specific intervention for tube care, not for monitoring UTI symptoms.
Question 4 of 9
An adult is brought in by ambulance after a motor vehicle accident. He is unconscious, on a backboard with his neck immobilized. He is bleeding profusely from a large gash on his right thigh. What is the first action the nurse should take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Check his airway. Ensuring a patent airway is the priority in trauma care to maintain oxygenation and ventilation. With the patient unconscious and bleeding profusely, airway obstruction or compromise is a critical concern. By checking the airway first, the nurse can quickly assess and address any immediate threats to the patient's breathing. Stopping the bleeding (choice A) can be addressed once the airway is secured. Taking vital signs (choice B) and finding out what happened from eyewitnesses (choice D) can be important but are secondary to ensuring the patient's airway is clear and unobstructed.
Question 5 of 9
A client is receiving chemotherapy to treat breath cancer. Which assessment finding indicates a fluid and electrolyte imbalance induced by chemotherapy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A urine output of 400 ml in 8 hours indicates a fluid and electrolyte imbalance induced by chemotherapy. Chemotherapy can cause renal damage, leading to decreased urine output. This can result in fluid retention and electrolyte imbalances. Choice B is incorrect because a serum potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L is within the normal range. Choice C is incorrect as the blood pressure readings provided are within the normal range. Choice D is incorrect as dry oral mucous membranes and cracked lips are more indicative of dehydration rather than a fluid and electrolyte imbalance induced by chemotherapy.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse should include in the patient’s teaching plan that if the patient does not take the vitamin B12, which one of the following will develop?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pernicious anemia. Vitamin B12 is essential for the production of red blood cells, and its deficiency can lead to pernicious anemia, characterized by decreased red blood cell production. Without adequate vitamin B12, the body cannot properly utilize iron, leading to anemia. Iron deficiency anemia (choice A) is a result of insufficient iron levels, not vitamin B12 deficiency. Sickle cell anemia (choice B) is a genetic disorder affecting hemoglobin, not related to vitamin B12 deficiency. Acquired haemolytic anemia (choice D) is caused by the premature destruction of red blood cells, not by vitamin B12 deficiency.
Question 7 of 9
A client takes prednisone (Deltasone), as prescribed, for rheumatoid arthritis. During follow-up visits, the nurse should assess the client for common adverse reactions to this drug, such as:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluid retention and weight gain. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause fluid retention and weight gain as common adverse reactions. Here's the rationale: Prednisone is known to increase sodium and water retention in the body, leading to fluid retention and subsequent weight gain. This occurs due to the drug's impact on the body's electrolyte balance. Tetany and tremors (Choice A) are not common adverse reactions associated with prednisone use. Anorexia and weight loss (Choice C) are also not typical reactions, as prednisone is more likely to cause weight gain. Choice D, "None of the above," is incorrect as prednisone commonly causes fluid retention and weight gain as adverse reactions.
Question 8 of 9
A man‘s blood type is AB and he requires a blood transfusion. To prevent complications of blood incompatibilities, which blood type may the client receive?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because individuals with AB blood type are considered universal recipients, meaning they can receive blood from any blood type without risking complications due to incompatibility. This is because their blood cells have both A and B antigens and do not produce antibodies against either type. Therefore, the client can safely receive blood from types A, B, AB, or O without adverse reactions. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they limit the options for blood transfusion based on the client's AB blood type, which is not necessary given the unique nature of AB blood as universal recipients.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse notes vigorous bubbling in the water-seal chamber of a chest-drainage system. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to correct the bubbling?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. First, the nurse should assess the chest-drainage system and tubing for any air leaks. Air leaks can cause bubbling in the water-seal chamber, indicating a potential issue with the system's integrity. By examining the entire system, the nurse can identify and correct any leaks to ensure proper functioning of the chest-drainage system. Lowering the level of suction (choice B) may not address the underlying issue of air leaks. Doing nothing (choice C) is not appropriate as vigorous bubbling indicates a problem. Asking the patient to cough forcefully (choice D) is unrelated to addressing bubbling in the water-seal chamber.