ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 4
Which of the following is the most common cause of hyperaldosteronism?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: An adrenal adenoma. Adrenal adenoma is the most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism, also known as Conn's syndrome. Adrenal adenomas are benign tumors that cause overproduction of aldosterone, leading to increased sodium retention and potassium excretion. This results in hypertension and hypokalemia. Excessive sodium intake (A) and deficient potassium intake (B) are not direct causes of hyperaldosteronism. A pituitary adenoma (C) is associated with other hormone imbalances, such as Cushing's syndrome or acromegaly, but not hyperaldosteronism.
Question 2 of 4
The nurse administered neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin to a diabetic client at 7am. At what time would the nurse expect the client to be at most risk for a hypoglycemic reaction?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: 1. NPH insulin peaks in 4-12 hours, making 4:00 PM the highest risk time. 2. 10:00 AM is too soon for peak effect. 3. Noon is too early for peak effect. 4. 10:00 PM is too late for peak effect. In summary, B is correct as it aligns with NPH insulin peak time, while other options are too early or too late.
Question 3 of 4
Following hypophysectomy, patients require extensive teaching regarding this major alteration in their lifestyle
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lifetime dependency on hormone replacement. After hypophysectomy, the pituitary gland is removed, leading to a deficiency in essential hormones. Patients will need lifelong hormone replacement therapy to maintain normal body functions. This is crucial for regulating metabolism, growth, reproduction, and stress response. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because abnormal distribution of body hair, increased fluid intake, and repeat surgical procedures are not typically associated with hypophysectomy. It is essential to focus on the long-term management of hormone replacement therapy to ensure the patient's overall health and well-being.
Question 4 of 4
To prevent infection in a patient with a subdural intracranial pressure monitoring system in place, the nurse should;
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use aseptic technique for the insertion site. Aseptic technique is crucial for preventing infection when accessing or caring for an invasive monitoring system like a subdural intracranial pressure monitoring system. Aseptic technique involves maintaining a sterile field, washing hands, using sterile gloves, and using sterile supplies to minimize the risk of contamination. This is essential to prevent introducing harmful microorganisms into the patient's system. Using clean technique (B) or sterile technique only when cleansing the insertion site (C) may not provide adequate protection against infection. Closing leaks in the tubing with tape (D) is not an appropriate method for preventing infection and can lead to complications.