Which of the following is the main reason why older clients with AIDS need more care than their younger counterparts?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is option C: "Because older clients have a faster progression of disease." This is because older individuals tend to have a weakened immune system due to aging, which accelerates the progression of diseases such as AIDS. As a result, older clients with AIDS require more care and attention to manage their condition effectively. Option A, "Because older clients lack in balanced diet and activity," is incorrect because while diet and activity level are important factors in overall health, the primary reason older clients with AIDS need more care is due to the faster progression of the disease related to their compromised immune system, not solely because of diet and activity. Option B, "Because older clients lack knowledge about disorders," is incorrect as the need for more care in older clients with AIDS is primarily related to the physiological impact of aging on the immune system, not their knowledge about the disorder. Option D, "Because older clients do not generally adhere to therapy," is incorrect because adherence to therapy is important for all individuals with AIDS, regardless of age. While adherence may be a challenge in some cases, it is not the main reason why older clients need more care than their younger counterparts. In an educational context, understanding the specific healthcare needs of different age groups is crucial for providing targeted and effective care. By recognizing the impact of aging on disease progression, healthcare providers can tailor their approach to meet the unique needs of older clients with conditions like AIDS, ensuring optimal outcomes and quality of life.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct medication to administer first is option C) albuterol (Proventil) 0.5 mL per nebulizer. Albuterol is a short-acting beta agonist bronchodilator that helps relieve bronchospasm, which is essential in managing wheezing and coughing associated with allergic reactions like anaphylaxis. Option A) methylprednisolone is a glucocorticoid that helps reduce inflammation and immune responses but takes time to exert its effects, making it a secondary choice in acute situations. Option B) cromolyn sodium is a mast cell stabilizer that works well for preventing allergic reactions but is not as effective in treating acute bronchospasm. Option D) aminophylline is a bronchodilator and smooth muscle relaxant, but it has a slower onset of action compared to albuterol and is not typically first-line in managing acute allergic reactions. In an educational context, understanding the mechanism of action of each medication is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment for a patient with allergic reactions. Albuterol's quick onset of action and bronchodilator properties make it the preferred initial choice in addressing acute symptoms like wheezing and coughing in an allergic reaction scenario. This rationale highlights the importance of selecting the most appropriate medication based on the patient's presentation and the mechanism of action of the drugs available.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the context of diagnosing HIV, the confirmatory lab test is crucial for accurate results. The correct answer is A) Western blot. The Western blot test is used to confirm the presence of antibodies to HIV in a patient's blood, making it a reliable method for diagnosing HIV infection. This test is highly specific and is considered the gold standard for confirming HIV infection. Option B) Low WBC (White Blood Cell count) is not a confirmatory test for HIV. While HIV can lead to a decrease in WBC count, it is not a specific diagnostic test for the virus. Option C) Comprehensive metabolic panel is a series of blood tests used to evaluate organ function and electrolyte balance. While these tests may provide important information about a patient's overall health, they do not directly diagnose HIV. Option D) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is commonly used as an initial screening test for HIV. However, it is not confirmatory on its own, as false positives can occur. The Western blot test is typically used to confirm the results of an initial positive ELISA test. Educationally, understanding the specific diagnostic tests for HIV is crucial for healthcare professionals working in fields related to infectious diseases. It is essential to differentiate between screening tests and confirmatory tests to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate patient management. By knowing the strengths and limitations of each test, healthcare providers can make informed decisions regarding patient care.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms after abdominal surgery would be option B) Adhesion. Adhesions are fibrous bands that form between tissues and organs, often as a result of surgery. These adhesions can cause the structures to become stuck together, leading to symptoms like abdominal pain, cramping, vomiting, and bloating. Option A) Infection is less likely in this case because the symptoms described are more indicative of a mechanical issue like adhesions rather than an infectious process. Option C) Contracture refers to the shortening or tightening of muscles, which is not typically associated with the symptoms described by the patient. Option D) Evisceration is the protrusion of organs through a surgical incision, which would present with more severe and immediate symptoms like visible organ protrusion and would require urgent medical attention. In an educational context, understanding post-operative complications like adhesions is crucial for nurses and healthcare providers to provide timely and appropriate care to patients. Recognizing the signs and symptoms of potential complications allows for early intervention and improved patient outcomes.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) Stage IV. A Stage IV pressure ulcer involves full-thickness skin loss with extensive destruction, tissue necrosis, or damage to muscle, bone, or supporting structures. In the case described, where the sore on the sacrum is deep enough to expose muscle, it indicates severe tissue damage characteristic of a Stage IV pressure ulcer. Option A) Stage I is incorrect because Stage I pressure ulcers involve non-blanchable redness of intact skin. Option B) Stage II is incorrect as it involves partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and possibly the dermis. Option C) Stage III is incorrect as it involves full-thickness skin loss extending into the subcutaneous tissue but not muscle or bone. Educationally, understanding the stages of pressure ulcers is crucial for healthcare providers, especially nurses, to provide appropriate care and interventions to prevent and manage these wounds effectively. Recognizing the severity of a pressure ulcer helps in determining the necessary treatment and care plan to promote healing and prevent complications.