ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Free Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following is the function of macrophages and neutrophils?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Phagocytosis. Macrophages and neutrophils are both types of phagocytes responsible for engulfing and digesting pathogens such as bacteria. This process helps in clearing infections and maintaining immune homeostasis. Summary: - Choice B (Complement fixation) is incorrect as it refers to a process where complement proteins bind to pathogens to enhance their removal by phagocytes. - Choice C (Antibody production) is incorrect as macrophages and neutrophils do not produce antibodies. They mainly rely on phagocytosis for pathogen clearance. - Choice D (Suppression of autoimmunity) is incorrect as these cells are involved in innate immunity and do not play a direct role in regulating autoimmunity.
Question 2 of 5
A patient who is being tested for HIV asks what tests are used. The nurse would correct in stating that the tests used to confirm HIV infection are which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: ELISA and Western Blot. The rationale is as follows: ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay) and Western Blot are specific tests used to confirm HIV infection by detecting antibodies or antigens related to the virus. ELISA is the initial screening test, while Western Blot is the confirmatory test. These tests are highly sensitive and specific for HIV detection. Choice A is incorrect because CD4+ cell count and thymus function are not tests used to confirm HIV infection. They are used to monitor disease progression and immune function in HIV-positive individuals. Choice C is incorrect because B-cell and T-cell count are also not tests used to confirm HIV infection. They are indicators of immune system health but not specific for HIV diagnosis. Choice D is incorrect because while CD4+ and viral load tests are used in monitoring HIV progression, ELISA is the main confirmatory test for HIV diagnosis, and viral load is not typically used for initial
Question 3 of 5
A client with allergic rhinitis is prescribed loratadine (Claritin). On a follow-up visit, the client tells the nurse, “I take one 10-mg of Claritin with a glass of water two times daily”. The nurse concludes that the client requires additional teaching about this medication because:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Loratadine is typically dosed once daily, not twice daily, for allergic rhinitis. 2. Taking it twice daily may increase the risk of side effects without added benefit. 3. The client's dosing schedule reflects a misunderstanding of the medication regimen. 4. Option A is incorrect because loratadine is available in 10mg tablets. 5. Option B is incorrect as loratadine can be taken with or without food. 6. Option D is incorrect as Claritin is a common trade name for loratadine.
Question 4 of 5
While obtaining a health history, the nurse learns that the client is allergic to bee stings. When obtaining the client’s medication history, the nurse should determine if the client keeps which medication on hand?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A: Diphenhydramine hydrochloride (Benadryl) is an antihistamine commonly used to treat allergic reactions, including those from bee stings. It can help alleviate symptoms like itching and swelling. Keeping Benadryl on hand is crucial for managing an allergic reaction promptly. Other Choices: B: Guaifenesin (Robitussin) is an expectorant used to treat coughs, not allergic reactions. C: Pseudoephedrine hydrochloride (Sudafed) is a decongestant used for nasal congestion, not allergic reactions. D: Loperamide (Imodium) is an antidiarrheal used to treat diarrhea, not allergic reactions.
Question 5 of 5
A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is receiving zidovudine (azidothymidine, AZT [Retrovir]). To check for adverse drug effects, the nurse should monitor the results of laboratory test?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Platelet count. Zidovudine (AZT) is known to cause bone marrow suppression, leading to decreased platelet production. Monitoring platelet count is crucial to detect early signs of thrombocytopenia, a common adverse effect of AZT. Rationale: A) RBC count: AZT can cause anemia, not specifically affecting the RBC count. B) Serum calcium: AZT does not typically affect calcium levels. C) Fasting blood glucose: AZT can cause hyperglycemia, but fasting blood glucose monitoring is not as critical as monitoring platelet count for AZT therapy.