ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Across the Lifespan Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following is the first-line treatment for type 2 diabetes mellitus?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metformin. Metformin is the first-line treatment for type 2 diabetes mellitus due to its effectiveness, safety profile, and low cost. It works by decreasing glucose production in the liver and improving insulin sensitivity. Insulin (choice A) is usually reserved for when other treatments fail. Sulfonylureas (choice C) can cause weight gain and hypoglycemia. DPP-4 inhibitors (choice D) are typically used as second-line agents.
Question 2 of 5
Which class of medications is used for the treatment of erectile dysfunction?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors (PDE5 inhibitors) are used for treating erectile dysfunction by increasing blood flow to the penis. Beta-blockers (A), ACE inhibitors (C), and diuretics (D) are not indicated for erectile dysfunction treatment as they do not target the underlying physiological mechanisms responsible for erectile function. PDE5 inhibitors specifically target the vasodilation process in the penis, leading to improved erectile function.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following is a common adverse effect of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Osteoporosis. Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) can inhibit calcium absorption, potentially leading to osteoporosis. PPIs reduce stomach acid production, increasing the risk of bone fractures. B: Gastritis is incorrect as PPIs are actually used to treat gastritis by reducing stomach acid. C: Weight loss is incorrect as PPIs are not associated with weight loss. D: Hypoglycemia is incorrect as PPIs do not affect blood sugar levels significantly.
Question 4 of 5
A 55-year-old female with type 2 diabetes is prescribed canagliflozin. Canagliflozin works by:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inhibiting the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys. Canagliflozin is a sodium-glucose cotransporter-2 (SGLT2) inhibitor that works by blocking the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, leading to increased urinary glucose excretion and lowering blood glucose levels. This mechanism of action is unique to SGLT2 inhibitors and helps improve glycemic control in patients with type 2 diabetes. Choice B is incorrect because canagliflozin does not stimulate the pancreas to release more insulin. Choice C is incorrect as canagliflozin does not increase the release of glucagon from the pancreas. Choice D is incorrect because canagliflozin does not directly improve insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissues. The key mechanism of action of canagliflozin lies in its specific inhibition of glucose reabsorption in the kidneys, making choice A the correct answer.
Question 5 of 5
A 50-year-old male with chronic hypertension is prescribed clonidine. Clonidine works by:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: Clonidine is a centrally acting alpha-2 adrenergic agonist that inhibits the release of norepinephrine in the brainstem. By activating alpha-2 receptors, it reduces sympathetic outflow from the CNS, leading to decreased peripheral vascular resistance and heart rate. This mechanism helps in lowering blood pressure. Summary of other choices: B: Blocking calcium channels would be a mechanism of action for calcium channel blockers, not clonidine. C: Stimulating beta-1 receptors in the heart would increase heart rate and contractility, opposite to clonidine's effects. D: Inhibiting angiotensin converting enzyme is a mechanism of action for ACE inhibitors, not clonidine.